PHAR 6231 (DAST I) Drug Action, Structure, and Therapeutics I Exam 1 Fall - Chicago State University School of Pharmacy
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Free PHAR 6231 (DAST I) Drug Action, Structure, and Therapeutics I Exam 1 Fall - Chicago State University School of Pharmacy Questions
Which one of the following is the most frequently mutated pathway in human cancers?
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JAK/Stat pathway
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TGF-beta/Smad pathway
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Receptor tyrosine kinase pathway
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WNT pathway
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Receptor tyrosine kinase pathway The receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) pathway, which includes downstream signaling through RAS/MAPK and PI3K/AKT, is the most frequently mutated/dysregulated signaling pathway across human cancers, driving uncontrolled cell growth and proliferation.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. JAK/Stat pathway. While JAK/STAT mutations occur in certain cancers (e.g., some hematologic malignancies), they are not the most frequently mutated pathway across human cancers overall.
B. TGF-beta/Smad pathway. TGF-beta/Smad signaling is implicated in some cancers, particularly related to loss of growth inhibition, but it is not as frequently mutated as the RTK pathway across the spectrum of human cancers.
D. WNT pathway. WNT pathway mutations are prominent in specific cancers (e.g., colorectal cancer), but this pathway is not the most frequently mutated one across human cancers as a whole.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of general pathology?
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Concerned with the common reactions of tissues to injurious stimuli
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Reactions of tissues to injurious stimuli are not tissue-specific
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Reactions of tissues to injurious stimuli are highly tissue-specific
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All of the above
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Reactions of tissues to injurious stimuli are highly tissue-specific General pathology studies the common, shared reactions of cells and tissues to injury across the body (not specific to a single organ), so describing these reactions as "highly tissue-specific" is inconsistent with the definition of general pathology; this concept instead falls under systemic/special pathology.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Concerned with the common reactions of tissues to injurious stimuli. This is an accurate description of general pathology, which focuses on universal cellular responses to injury (e.g., inflammation, necrosis) applicable across different tissues.
B. Reactions of tissues to injurious stimuli are not tissue-specific. This is also an accurate characteristic of general pathology, as it studies broad, shared patterns of tissue response rather than organ-specific disease processes.
D. All of the above. This is incorrect because option C does not accurately describe general pathology, so not all the statements listed are true characteristics.
Which one is NOT a characteristic phenotype of Cancer cell?
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Dependence on growth factors/signals
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Invasion and metastasis
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Sustained angiogenesis
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Evasion of apoptosis
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (A) Dependence on growth factors/signals Cancer cells characteristically achieve self-sufficiency in growth signals, meaning they become independent of external growth factors and can proliferate autonomously, which is the opposite of "dependence" on these signals.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Invasion and metastasis. This is a well-established hallmark characteristic of cancer cells, as they gain the ability to invade surrounding tissue and spread to distant sites.
C. Sustained angiogenesis. This is a recognized hallmark of cancer, as tumors induce new blood vessel formation to supply nutrients and oxygen to support their growth.
D. Evasion of apoptosis. This is a key characteristic of cancer cells, as they develop mechanisms to resist programmed cell death, allowing for uncontrolled survival and proliferation.
Which one is NOT TRUE about "neoplastic cells"?
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Causative mutations give neoplastic cells a survival and growth advantage
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Stroma support the growth of neoplastic cells
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Neoplastic cells are proliferating cells that constitute the tumor parenchyma
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Neoplastic cells are dependent of physiologic growth signals for excessive proliferation
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Neoplastic cells are dependent of physiologic growth signals for excessive proliferation This statement is NOT true because neoplastic cells characteristically become independent of normal physiologic growth signals, allowing them to proliferate excessively and autonomously, unlike normal cells.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Causative mutations give neoplastic cells a survival and growth advantage — This is true; mutations drive the selective growth and survival advantage of neoplastic cells.
B. Stroma support the growth of neoplastic cells — This is true; the tumor stroma provides structural and vascular support for neoplastic growth.
C. Neoplastic cells are proliferating cells that constitute the tumor parenchyma — This is true; neoplastic cells make up the parenchyma (the functional proliferating component) of the tumor.
Which of the following best defines Atrophy?
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Replacement of one cell type with another
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Increase in cell number
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Decrease in cell size and function
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Increase in cell size
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Decrease in cell size and function Atrophy is an adaptive cellular response in which cells shrink in size and reduce their functional activity, often due to decreased workload, blood supply, nutrition, or hormonal stimulation.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Replacement of one cell type with another — This describes metaplasia, not atrophy.
B. Increase in cell number — This describes hyperplasia, not atrophy.
D. Increase in cell size — This describes hypertrophy, the opposite of atrophy.
Decreased protein synthesis and/or increased protein degradation leading to cellular-
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Hyperplasia
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Atrophy
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Metaplasia
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Dysplasia
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) Atrophy Atrophy is the adaptive cellular response characterized by a decrease in cell size, resulting from decreased protein synthesis and/or increased protein degradation, often occurring in response to reduced workload, nutrient deprivation, or disuse.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell number, which is unrelated to decreased protein synthesis or increased degradation; it is a distinctly different adaptive response.
C. Metaplasia. Metaplasia describes the transformation of one differentiated cell type into another and is not related to changes in protein synthesis/degradation balance.
D. Dysplasia. Dysplasia refers to disordered, atypical cellular growth and maturation, which is a distinct process from the protein synthesis/degradation imbalance that defines atrophy.
Grading of cancer is based on the degree of ___________ of tumor cells
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Dysplasia
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Teratoma
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Metaplasia
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Differentiation
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Differentiation Tumor grading assesses how closely tumor cells resemble normal, mature cells of the tissue of origin (their degree of differentiation); poorly differentiated tumors are typically assigned a higher grade, reflecting more aggressive behavior.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Dysplasia. Dysplasia refers to disordered cell growth and atypia, often seen as a precancerous change, but it is not the basis used for grading an established tumor.
B. Teratoma. Teratoma is a specific type of germ cell tumor containing multiple tissue types, not a criterion used for cancer grading in general.
C. Metaplasia. Metaplasia refers to the reversible transformation of one differentiated cell type into another and is not the parameter used to grade malignant tumors.
The following are mechanisms of cell injury, except-
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Protein misfolding
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Mitochondrial damage
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Membrane damage
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Cellular exchange of Na+
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Cellular exchange of Na+ Normal cellular exchange of Na+ (via the Na+/K+ ATPase pump) is a routine, physiologic process necessary for maintaining cellular homeostasis, and is not itself a mechanism of cell injury; rather, failure of this pump (not its normal function) contributes to injury.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Protein misfolding. Protein misfolding is a recognized mechanism of cell injury, as accumulation of misfolded proteins can trigger cellular stress responses and dysfunction.
B. Mitochondrial damage. Mitochondrial damage is a key mechanism of cell injury, leading to decreased ATP production and triggering apoptotic or necrotic pathways.
C. Membrane damage. Membrane damage is a well-established mechanism of cell injury, resulting in loss of cellular integrity, ion imbalance, and potential cell death.
What is the exact sequence of leukocyte recruitment at the site of inflammation?
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Migration>rolling>adherence
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Adherence>rolling>migration
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Rolling>adherence>migration
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Rolling>migration>adherence
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Rolling>adherence>migration Leukocyte recruitment follows a sequential process beginning with rolling along the endothelium (mediated by selectins), followed by firm adherence (mediated by integrins binding to endothelial adhesion molecules), and finally transmigration through the vessel wall into the tissue.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Migration>rolling>adherence. Migration through the endothelium cannot occur before the leukocyte first rolls along and then firmly adheres to the vessel wall.
B. Adherence>rolling>migration. Firm adherence requires the initial rolling step to occur first, as rolling allows leukocytes to sample the endothelial surface before stable adhesion molecules are engaged.
D. Rolling>migration>adherence. Migration (transmigration through the vessel wall) cannot occur before firm adherence, as the leukocyte must first firmly attach to the endothelium before it can move through the vessel wall.
SM is a 6-year-old boy who develops high fever due to an unknown cause. His mother gives him an oral dose of Tylenol (acetaminophen), an aspirin-like drug, as recommended by SM's pediatrician. SM's fever begins to subside after an hour. Which of the following mechanism is most likely responsible for this action of Tylenol?
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Inhibition of both PGs and LTs synthesis
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Inhibition of PGs synthesis due to blockade of cyclooxygenases
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Scavenging of ROS by Tylenol
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Inhibition of LTs synthesis due to blockade of lipoxygenase
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) Inhibition of PGs synthesis due to blockade of cyclooxygenases Acetaminophen (Tylenol) reduces fever primarily through inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, particularly in the central nervous system, which decreases prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) synthesis in the hypothalamus, thereby lowering the hypothalamic set point and reducing fever.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Inhibition of both PGs and LTs synthesis. Acetaminophen's antipyretic action is attributed specifically to COX inhibition and reduced prostaglandin synthesis; it does not significantly inhibit leukotriene (LT) synthesis via the lipoxygenase pathway.
C. Scavenging of ROS by Tylenol. While acetaminophen has some antioxidant properties, this is not the primary mechanism responsible for its antipyretic (fever-reducing) effect.
D. Inhibition of LTs synthesis due to blockade of lipoxygenase. Acetaminophen does not significantly act on the lipoxygenase pathway or leukotriene synthesis; its main action is on cyclooxygenase and prostaglandin production.
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