PRN 1520 -PATHOPHYSIOLOGY COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM SOUTH COLLEGE
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Free PRN 1520 -PATHOPHYSIOLOGY COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM SOUTH COLLEGE Questions
Which of the following findings suggests the development of pulmonary edema?
- Bounding peripheral pulses
- Constipation and dry mucous membranes
- Increased urinary output at night
- Productive cough with frothy sputum
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Productive cough with frothy sputum
Pulmonary edema occurs when excess fluid accumulates in the alveoli and lung interstitium, impairing gas exchange. A productive cough with frothy, pink-tinged sputum is a hallmark clinical sign, resulting from fluid being forced into the airways as pressure builds in the pulmonary vasculature. This finding, along with dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles on auscultation, is a key indicator of acute pulmonary edema requiring immediate intervention.
Bounding peripheral pulses are associated with fluid overload or conditions like sepsis but are not specific to pulmonary edema. Constipation and dry mucous membranes are signs of dehydration or fluid deficit — the opposite of fluid accumulation. Increased urinary output at night (nocturia) can occur with heart failure as the body redistributes fluid when recumbent, but it is not a direct sign of pulmonary edema developing acutely.
How does the body control hormone release?
- The nerve bundles directly control and turn off all glands.
- The positive feedback increases hormones when receptors become saturated.
- The negative feedback stops hormone release when levels are sufficient.
- The hormones are released only once a day on a fixed cycle.
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) The negative feedback stops hormone release when levels are sufficient.
The primary mechanism by which the body regulates hormone release is negative feedback. When circulating hormone levels rise to a sufficient level, this is detected by the hypothalamus and/or pituitary gland, which then reduces or stops further stimulation of the hormone-producing gland. This keeps hormone levels within a narrow, physiologically appropriate range. A classic example is the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis — when T3/T4 levels rise sufficiently, they feed back to suppress TSH and TRH release, preventing overproduction of thyroid hormone.
Which of the following conditions is defined as a raised, irregular, thickened scar?
- Contracture
- Hematoma
- Keloid
- Dehiscence
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Keloid
A keloid is an abnormal overgrowth of scar tissue that extends beyond the boundaries of the original wound. It is characterized by a raised, irregular, thickened appearance and results from excessive collagen deposition during the healing process. Keloids are more common in individuals with darker skin tones and can cause itching, tenderness, and cosmetic concerns. Unlike hypertrophic scars, keloids grow beyond the original wound margins and do not regress over time.
A contracture is a complication of scarring in which the skin tightens and shortens, restricting movement — particularly over joints. A hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside the vessels, forming a swelling or bruise, not a scar. Dehiscence refers to the separation or reopening of a surgical wound along the suture line, which is a wound complication, not a type of scar.
Which of the following white blood cells aids the body in clearing debris?
- Neutrophils
- Eosinophils
- Lymphocytes
- Basophils
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Neutrophils
Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cells and serve as the body's first line of defense during infection and inflammation. They are highly effective phagocytes — they engulf and destroy bacteria, cellular debris, and foreign particles through phagocytosis, making them the primary cells responsible for clearing debris at sites of injury or infection.
Eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not primarily in debris clearance. Lymphocytes (B and T cells) are responsible for adaptive immunity, including antibody production and cell-mediated immunity. Basophils release histamine and are involved in allergic and inflammatory responses, not in phagocytosis or debris clearance.
Which of the following statements is true regarding peripheral venous disease?
- Atherosclerosis is the main cause of varicose veins.
- Standing for long periods of time decreases the risk of varicose veins.
- Pulses in the feet are often diminished or absent.
- Elevation of the legs decreases swelling and pain.
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Elevation of the legs decreases swelling and pain.
In peripheral venous disease, incompetent venous valves cause blood to pool in the lower extremities, leading to edema, heaviness, and pain. Elevating the legs uses gravity to facilitate venous return back toward the heart, reducing pooling, swelling, and discomfort. This is a key non-pharmacological management strategy for patients with chronic venous insufficiency and varicose veins.
Manifestations of left-sided heart failure may include which of the following?
- Frothy sputum
- Ascites
- Splenomegaly
- Jugular vein distention
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Frothy sputum
Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation, leading to pulmonary congestion and edema. Fluid accumulates in the alveoli, producing frothy, sometimes pink-tinged sputum — a hallmark sign of acute pulmonary edema. Ascites, splenomegaly, and jugular vein distention are all manifestations of right-sided heart failure, where systemic venous congestion predominates.
Which pathophysiological change in chronic renal failure leads to fluid retention?
- Secondary hyperparathyroidism from low calcium levels
- Decreased erythropoietin production leading to anemia
- Inability of kidneys to regulate fluid balance
- Accumulation of urea causing metabolic acidosis
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Inability of kidneys to regulate fluid balance
In chronic renal failure, the progressive loss of nephron function impairs the kidneys' ability to filter and excrete excess sodium and water. This inability to regulate fluid balance leads to fluid retention, manifesting as edema, hypertension, and potentially pulmonary congestion. The other options describe real complications of chronic renal failure but are not the direct cause of fluid retention.
Which of the following electrolytes is primarily responsible for cardiac function?
- Calcium
- Sodium
- Chloride
- Potassium
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Potassium
Potassium is the primary intracellular electrolyte and plays the most critical role in maintaining cardiac function. It is essential for the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. Imbalances in potassium — both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia — directly affect cardiac conduction and can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or asystole.
Calcium contributes to cardiac muscle contraction but is more broadly associated with bone health, neuromuscular function, and coagulation. Sodium is vital for action potential initiation and fluid balance but is not the primary electrolyte governing cardiac rhythm. Chloride maintains acid-base balance and fluid distribution but has minimal direct involvement in cardiac electrical activity.
Mild sunburn would be classified as which of the following types of burns?
- Full thickness burn
- Superficial partial thickness burn
- Superficial thickness burn
- Deep partial thickness burn
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Superficial thickness burn
A mild sunburn is classified as a superficial thickness burn (previously called a first-degree burn). It involves only the outermost layer of skin — the epidermis — and presents with redness (erythema), pain, warmth, and dry skin without blistering. It heals within 3–5 days without scarring because the dermis and deeper structures remain intact.
A full thickness burn destroys the entire epidermis and dermis, often appearing white or charred, and requires grafting. A superficial partial thickness burn involves the epidermis and superficial dermis, producing blisters and a moist wound bed — more severe than a simple sunburn. A deep partial thickness burn extends into the deep dermis, causing significant tissue damage, reduced sensation, and prolonged healing.
What method do viruses use to replicate?
- By producing reproductive spores
- By using a host cell to replicate
- By budding of a daughter cell
- They divide by mitosis like bacteria
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) By using a host cell to replicate
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites — they lack the cellular machinery needed for independent reproduction. They replicate by injecting their genetic material (DNA or RNA) into a host cell, hijacking the cell's own machinery to produce viral components, which are then assembled into new virus particles and released to infect more cells.
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