Network and Security (Applications) D329

Network and Security (Applications) D329

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Free Network and Security (Applications) D329 Questions

1.

An organization is implementing a cloud storage solution that includes geographic redundancy to enhance data availability. Which of the following statements accurately describes this configuration

  • Data is replicated across multiple geographic locations to ensure durability.

  • Data can only be accessed if the primary data center is operational.

  • This configuration is often referred to as geo-redundant storage.

  • Data is stored in a single location to reduce latency.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A. Data is replicated across multiple geographic locations to ensure durability.

C. This configuration is often referred to as geo-redundant storage.


Explanation

Geographic redundancy in cloud storage ensures that data is replicated across multiple locations, making it more resilient to localized failures or disasters. This configuration enhances the durability and availability of data. When a storage solution is geo-redundant, the data is stored in multiple locations, ensuring it remains available even if one region experiences issues.

Why other options are wrong

B. Data can only be accessed if the primary data center is operational.

This is incorrect because geographic redundancy is specifically designed to provide access to data even if the primary data center goes down. The redundant locations ensure continued data availability.

D. Data is stored in a single location to reduce latency.

This statement contradicts the concept of geographic redundancy, as geographic redundancy involves storing data in multiple locations. Storing data in a single location would reduce latency but would not enhance availability through redundancy.


2.

 Which protocol is used to query a directory service

  • DNS

  • LDAP

  • Kerberos

  • NTFS

Explanation

Correct Answer B. LDAP

Explanation

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is the protocol used to query and interact with directory services. It is widely used for accessing and managing directory information, such as user accounts, authentication details, and other networked resource information in systems like Active Directory.

Why other options are wrong

A. DNS

DNS (Domain Name System) is used for resolving domain names to IP addresses, not for querying directory services. It is related to name resolution, not to managing or accessing directory information.

C. Kerberos

Kerberos is a network authentication protocol used to securely authenticate users and services in a network, but it does not query directory services like LDAP. Kerberos often works with directory services to authenticate users.

D. NTFS

NTFS (New Technology File System) is a file system used by Windows for storing and managing files, not for querying directory services. It does not relate to directory access or management.


3.

 Root certificate is a certificate that verifies

  • the operating system

  • Microsoft

  • the administrator

  • the certification authority

Explanation

Correct Answer D. the certification authority

Explanation

A root certificate is issued by a trusted certification authority (CA) and serves as the foundational trust anchor in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). The root certificate verifies the legitimacy of the entire certificate chain, ensuring that certificates issued by intermediate CAs or the root itself are valid and trustworthy. When a system encounters a certificate, it checks whether it can trace it back to a trusted root certificate to verify its authenticity.

Why other options are wrong

A. the operating system

Root certificates do not verify the operating system. They are used to validate the authenticity of certificates from trusted certification authorities. The operating system may manage or use certificates, but the root certificate itself is not tied to verifying the OS.

B. Microsoft

While Microsoft may issue or use root certificates in its own trusted certificate stores, the root certificate itself verifies the certification authority, not specifically Microsoft. The certificate is not limited to verifying one entity like Microsoft.

C. the administrator

Root certificates are not used to verify the administrator. They verify the authenticity of the certification authority (CA) that issued the certificate, ensuring trust in digital communications.


4.

Which of the following describes a characteristic of a HIPS

  •  A HIPS can be used to prevent DDoS attacks against a network.

  • A HIPS cannot be installed on multiple hosts attached to the same network.

  • A HIPS cannot be used in conjunction with a NIPS.

  • A HIPS can send alerts regarding malicious traffic to a central management server.

Explanation

Correct Answer D. A HIPS can send alerts regarding malicious traffic to a central management server.

Explanation

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) is typically installed on individual hosts and can monitor and block suspicious activities on that host. HIPS solutions can be configured to send alerts to a central management server, allowing security teams to monitor and respond to threats in real time. This integration is a key feature of centralized management in larger network environments.

Why other options are wrong

A. A HIPS can be used to prevent DDoS attacks against a network.

While a HIPS can help detect and prevent malicious activity on an individual host, it is not designed to prevent Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attacks, which are typically mitigated by network-based intrusion prevention systems (NIPS) or specialized DDoS protection services.

B. A HIPS cannot be installed on multiple hosts attached to the same network.

This statement is false. A HIPS can be installed on multiple hosts within the same network. It is designed to monitor each host for potential threats, and each installation operates independently on its host, regardless of the network.

C. A HIPS cannot be used in conjunction with a NIPS.

This is incorrect. HIPS and Network-based Intrusion Prevention Systems (NIPS) can be used together. HIPS focuses on detecting and preventing threats on individual hosts, while NIPS operates at the network level, providing coverage across the entire network. Both systems complement each other in a multi-layered security approach.


5.

 Ed needs to securely connect to a DMZ from an administrative network using Secure Shell (SSH). What type of system is frequently deployed to allow this to be done securely across security boundaries for network segments with different security levels

  • An IPS

  • A NAT gateway

  • A router

  • A jump box

Explanation

Correct Answer D. A jump box

Explanation

A jump box (also known as a jump server) is a secure intermediary server used to connect to a more secure network segment, such as a DMZ, from a less secure one, such as an administrative network. Jump boxes are often used to bridge security boundaries by providing a controlled entry point, ensuring that all traffic can be properly monitored, and ensuring that only authorized users can access sensitive systems through Secure Shell (SSH). They add an extra layer of security by isolating the DMZ from direct access by administrative systems.

Why other options are wrong

A. An IPS

An IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) monitors network traffic for malicious activity but does not provide a direct means of securely connecting different network segments. While it can enhance security, it does not function as a secure intermediary like a jump box.

B. A NAT gateway

A NAT (Network Address Translation) gateway helps route traffic between different networks and can modify IP addresses in network packets, but it does not inherently provide secure access controls for connecting to network segments across security boundaries. It is primarily used for IP address management, not for secure administrative access.

C. A router

A router is used to direct traffic between different network segments but does not provide the specialized access control and security monitoring features required for securely accessing a DMZ. Routers do not generally offer secure entry points like a jump box does.


6.

 Which boot process validates each successive piece of software as they start and halts if invalid software is discovered

  • Measured Boot

  • UEFI

  • Secure Boot

  • Bus Encryption

Explanation

Correct Answer C. Secure Boot

Explanation

Secure Boot is a boot process that ensures that only trusted software can run during system startup. It works by validating each piece of software as it starts, including firmware, bootloaders, and the operating system, ensuring that they are signed and trusted. If any invalid software is detected, Secure Boot halts the boot process to prevent potential malicious software from running.

Why other options are wrong

A. Measured Boot

Measured Boot also validates the boot process but works differently by storing measurements of each boot component in a TPM (Trusted Platform Module). While it helps detect tampering, it does not stop the process if invalid software is found during the boot, unlike Secure Boot, which directly halts the boot process.

B. UEFI

UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a modern firmware interface that replaces the traditional BIOS. While UEFI can support Secure Boot, it does not inherently validate each piece of software during startup. UEFI is simply the environment in which Secure Boot operates.

D. Bus Encryption

Bus Encryption refers to securing data transfer between components of a computer system (e.g., CPU to memory) to prevent eavesdropping. It does not play a role in validating software during the boot process.


7.

While IPsec VPN's encrypt data transmissions at the Internet layer, SSL/TLS VPN's encrypt data transmissions at which network layer

  • Physical

  • Datalink

  • Transport

  • Application

Explanation

Correct Answer C. Transport

Explanation

SSL/TLS VPNs operate at the transport layer, which is the layer responsible for end-to-end communication and data transfer between devices. SSL/TLS encryption occurs at this layer, providing secure communication for web-based applications, unlike IPsec VPNs, which work at the Internet layer and encrypt traffic for all applications, regardless of type.

Why other options are wrong

A. Physical

This is the lowest layer of the OSI model, dealing with hardware transmission of raw bits over a medium. It is not related to the encryption of data transmissions in SSL/TLS VPNs.

B. Datalink

The data link layer is responsible for node-to-node data transfer and error detection. It does not perform encryption for data transmission as SSL/TLS does at the transport layer.

D. Application

The application layer is where user-level protocols (e.g., HTTP, FTP) reside, but SSL/TLS VPNs operate at the transport layer, not directly at the application layer. Encrypting at the application layer would imply that only specific application traffic (e.g., HTTP traffic) is encrypted, which is not the case for SSL/TLS VPNs.


8.

What does the OPAL standard specify

  • Online personal access licenses

  • Self-encrypting drives

  • The origin of personal accounts and libraries

  • Drive sanitization modes for degaussers

Explanation

Correct Answer B. Self-encrypting drives

Explanation

The OPAL standard, developed by the Trusted Computing Group (TCG), defines a specification for self-encrypting drives (SEDs). These drives automatically perform hardware-based encryption and decryption of data, improving data protection with minimal performance impact. OPAL-compliant drives can also be securely locked or erased, making them useful in enterprise and government data security practices.

Why other options are wrong

A. Online personal access licenses

This has nothing to do with hardware encryption or storage security. It appears to be a fictional term with no relevance to the OPAL standard.

C. The origin of personal accounts and libraries

This is unrelated to OPAL, which is about drive-level security and not about user accounts or digital libraries.

D. Drive sanitization modes for degaussers

While degaussers are used to erase magnetic storage media, OPAL deals with encryption-based data protection and does not define physical erasure methods.


9.

In the process of establishing a public key infrastructure (PKI) for a logistics firm using OpenSSL, which command should the team execute to generate a 2048-bit encrypted RSA private key

  • openssl genrsa -aes256 -out private.key 2048

  • openssl genrsa -out private.key 2048

  • openssl rsa -in private.key -out public.key -pubout

  • openssl req -new -key private.key -out request.csr

Explanation

Correct Answer A. openssl genrsa -aes256 -out private.key 2048

Explanation

The command openssl genrsa -aes256 -out private.key 2048 generates a 2048-bit RSA private key and encrypts it with AES-256, which adds a layer of security to protect the key. This command is commonly used during the initial steps of setting up PKI, ensuring that the private key is strong and encrypted.

Why other options are wrong

B. openssl genrsa -out private.key 2048

Although this command generates a 2048-bit RSA private key, it does not include encryption. Without the -aes256 flag, the key is generated in plain text, which does not align with the question’s requirement for an encrypted key.

C. openssl rsa -in private.key -out public.key -pubout

This command is used to extract the public key from an existing private key. It does not generate a private key and therefore does not meet the requirement stated in the question.

D. openssl req -new -key private.key -out request.csr

This command generates a certificate signing request (CSR) from an existing private key. It is used later in the PKI process and does not generate a private key, making it the incorrect choice here.


10.

In cloud computing environments, which type of policy would be used to control access to a set of resources

  • Resource policies

  • None of these

  • Wireless policies

  • Key policies

Explanation

Correct Answer A. Resource policies

Explanation

Resource policies are used in cloud environments to control access to specific cloud resources, such as storage buckets, databases, or computing instances. They define permissions by specifying who can access what, under which conditions. This makes them an essential part of Identity and Access Management (IAM) in services like AWS, Azure, and Google Cloud.

Why other options are wrong

B. None of these

This is incorrect because "resource policies" is the accurate and widely used mechanism for access control in cloud platforms. Saying "none of these" ignores well-established security frameworks in cloud services.

C. Wireless policies

Wireless policies pertain to the configuration and security of wireless networks, not cloud resource access. They are unrelated to cloud-based identity and resource management.

D. Key policies

Key policies specifically control access to encryption keys, such as those managed in AWS KMS. While important, they do not provide broad access control to general cloud resources like compute or storage services.


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