Network and Security (Applications) D329

Correct Answer A. Secure boot

Explanation:

Secure boot is a security feature that works with TPM to ensure that only trusted software and firmware are allowed to run during the boot process. It helps protect against rootkits and other malicious software that could be introduced during system startup. By leveraging the TPM, secure boot ensures that the integrity of the system is maintained right from the boot process, which is essential for maintaining device integrity and preventing unauthorized software from running.

Why other options are wrong:

B. Basic input/output system (BIOS) – The BIOS is a firmware interface between the operating system and the hardware, but it doesn't leverage TPM directly to enforce security features. Secure boot, which is supported by TPM, can work with BIOS, but BIOS alone doesn't leverage TPM's security capabilities.

C. Standard hard drive – While TPM can provide encryption for data on a hard drive, a standard hard drive by itself does not directly utilize TPM for device integrity.

D. USB flash drive – A USB flash drive does not inherently utilize TPM's capabilities for device integrity or security features such as secure boot. It can be used for storing encrypted data but does not play a primary role in utilizing TPM.

Correct Answer A. Convert to PEM

Explanation

PEM (Privacy-Enhanced Mail) format is a common and widely accepted format for certificates and keys. It stores the data in Base64 encoded ASCII format, making it suitable for importing into systems that do not accept binary formats. Converting the X.509 certificate from its binary DER format to the PEM format will resolve the issue of incompatibility with the system.

Why other options are wrong

B. Convert to DER

If Shawn’s certificate is already in binary DER format, converting it to DER would not address the problem, as the system does not accept binary certificates. The solution lies in converting it to PEM format, which is more compatible with most systems.

C. Convert to X.500

X.500 is a directory service standard used for storing information such as user credentials, but it is not a certificate format. It is not used for the certificate exchange process, making it an inappropriate choice.

D. Convert to X.400

X.400 is a messaging standard for email and is unrelated to certificate formats. It would not resolve the issue at hand, which involves converting the certificate to a more suitable format for the system.

Correct Answer A. Input validation

Explanation

SQL injection attacks are typically prevented through input validation, where user input is carefully checked and sanitized to ensure that it does not contain malicious SQL commands. This helps to protect the integrity of the database by ensuring that user input cannot be interpreted as executable code.

Why other options are wrong

B. Using network firewalls

Network firewalls are designed to filter traffic based on IP addresses, protocols, and ports. While they can help with general network security, they do not specifically prevent SQL injection attacks, which involve malicious input within a web application.

C. Encrypting data packets

Encrypting data packets protects the confidentiality of the data being transmitted but does not prevent SQL injection attacks. SQL injection is an attack on the application layer, not the data transport layer, so encryption would not stop the malicious SQL code from being executed.

D. Deploying antivirus software

Antivirus software is designed to detect and prevent malware infections, but it does not specifically address SQL injection vulnerabilities, which exploit weaknesses in how user input is processed by web applications.

Correct Answer C. Add a second set of VPNs to the Management VPC from a second customer gateway device.

Explanation

The current architecture has a single VPN connection from the Management VPC to a single device in the data center, making it a single point of failure. To mitigate this, adding a second customer gateway device and establishing another set of VPN connections improves redundancy and fault tolerance. This ensures that if one VPN path or customer gateway device fails, connectivity is maintained via the second.

Why other options are wrong

A. Add a set of VPNs between the Management and Production VPCs.

This would not address the existing single point of failure in the Management VPC’s connection to the on-premises network. It changes the traffic path instead of adding redundancy to the current setup.

B. Add a second virtual private gateway and attach it to the Management VPC.

A VPC can only be attached to one virtual private gateway at a time, so this option is not technically viable for solving the redundancy issue in this context.

D. Add a second VPC peering connection between the Management VPC and the Production VPC.

VPC peering is non-transitive and doesn’t support redundancy by adding a second connection. Additionally, only one peering connection is needed between two VPCs, as it already supports bidirectional communication.

Correct Answer B. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)

Explanation

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) provides visibility and control over user access to cloud applications. It enables secure authentication, monitoring of usage, and enforcement of security policies across cloud-based applications and services. CASBs can also ensure secure access from various devices, making it the best solution for this scenario.

Why other options are wrong

A. Identity and Access Management (IAM)

IAM focuses on managing and controlling user identities and access within an organization. While IAM is essential for controlling access, it does not specifically focus on providing visibility into cloud application usage or managing cloud-specific threats.

C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)

A VPN secures network connections by encrypting traffic between a user’s device and the network. However, it does not provide granular visibility and control over access to cloud applications or enforce security policies specific to cloud environments.

D. Secure Web Gateway (SWG)

A Secure Web Gateway is used to protect against web-based threats by monitoring and controlling internet traffic. While it can block malicious web activity, it does not provide the same level of visibility and control over cloud application access as a CASB.

Correct Answer D. Input validation

Explanation:

Input validation is a primary defense mechanism against SQL injection attacks. It ensures that any data entered by a user is checked for malicious characters or patterns that could alter the structure of a SQL query. Proper input validation helps to block attempts to manipulate the database by preventing unexpected or harmful inputs from being processed.

Why other options are wrong:

A. Code obfuscation – While it can make code harder to understand, it does not prevent SQL injection because it doesn’t address how inputs are handled.

B. Database normalization – This is a design approach to organizing data efficiently in databases, not a security mechanism to defend against input-based attacks.

C. Code signing – This is a method of verifying the integrity and origin of code but does not relate to how SQL queries are executed or how input is validated.

Correct Answer B. The SAN lists other domains, IP addresses, or possibly email addresses that may be potential targets.

Explanation

The Subject Alternative Name (SAN) field in a digital certificate is used to list additional hostnames, IP addresses, or email addresses that the certificate is valid for. For a penetration tester, this is valuable information as it may reveal additional systems or services that are part of the attack surface and can be investigated further for vulnerabilities.

Why other options are wrong

A. The SAN contains the encryption key, which may be handy during an exploit.

The SAN does not contain the encryption key. Keys are stored separately and protected to prevent exactly this type of misuse.

C. The SAN reveals the name of the person who created the certificate and may be used for social engineering.

The SAN field does not contain personally identifiable information like the name of the certificate creator. That information, if available, would be in the certificate subject or issuer fields.

D. The SAN does not contain important information and is not of any value to the penetration tester.

This is incorrect. The SAN field can reveal additional valid domains or IPs for the certificate, which can be used to broaden the scope of testing.

Correct Answer A. Input Validation 

Explanation

Injection attacks, such as SQL injection, occur when untrusted data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. The best way to prevent these attacks is through input validation — ensuring that any data entered by users is verified for type, length, format, and range before processing. Proper input validation helps to neutralize potential malicious data before it can impact the application or database.

Why other options are wrong

B. Enable an audit trail

While audit trails are useful for detecting suspicious activity after it occurs, they do not prevent injection attacks from happening in the first place.

C. Generic Error Messages

Providing generic error messages can prevent information leakage but does not stop injection attacks. It’s a good security practice, but it addresses a different concern.

D. Memory Validation

Memory validation relates more to buffer overflow protection and does not address SQL injection or other input-based attacks. It’s relevant to other types of vulnerabilities, not injection.

Correct Answer B. A CASB

Explanation

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) provides visibility and control over data movement in cloud environments. It enables organizations to monitor cloud application usage, restrict access to specific apps or features, and enforce security policies like preventing downloads or uploads of sensitive data. CASBs also allow administrators to implement compliance and threat protection in real-time across cloud services, making them the most suitable solution for controlling and monitoring application access and data usage in the cloud.

Why other options are wrong

A. An NGFW

A Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) focuses on inspecting network traffic and preventing threats such as malware or unauthorized access. While it can filter traffic and applications, it does not provide deep visibility or granular control over data movement within cloud applications. It lacks the features required to restrict user-level actions like downloads or uploads within cloud apps.

C. Application whitelisting

Application whitelisting is used to prevent unauthorized software from executing by allowing only approved applications to run. It does not provide visibility into which cloud applications are being used, nor does it control data transfer within those applications. It is more suitable for endpoint security rather than cloud application management.

D. An NG-SWG

A Next-Generation Secure Web Gateway (NG-SWG) helps filter internet traffic and detect threats but is not as comprehensive as a CASB in terms of cloud-specific visibility and control. While NG-SWGs may offer some cloud app security features, they are typically focused on web traffic filtering rather than full policy enforcement across multiple cloud platforms.