Medical surgical Exam 1 (NSG 123)

Medical surgical Exam 1 (NSG 123)

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Free Medical surgical Exam 1 (NSG 123) Questions

1.

A 60-year-old African American male who works as a soccer coach, is admitted with hypertension. On admission his blood pressure was 210/108 mmHg. His last total cholesterol level was 156 mg/dl, and a random blood glucose was 110 mg/dl. Which is unalterable risk factor for hypertension

  • His blood glucose level

  • His cholesterol level

  • His occupation

  • His ethnicity

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. His ethnicity

Rationale:

Ethnicity is an unmodifiable (unalterable) risk factor for hypertension. Studies have shown that African American males are at a higher risk for developing hypertension and often experience more severe forms of the condition compared to other ethnic groups. This increased risk is related to both genetic factors and environmental influences. Therefore, his ethnicity cannot be changed, making it an unalterable risk factor.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. His blood glucose level:

Blood glucose levels can be altered by lifestyle modifications (diet, exercise, medication). A random blood glucose of 110 mg/dl is considered pre-diabetic, but it is modifiable with proper treatment, making it a modifiable risk factor for hypertension.

B. His cholesterol level:

Cholesterol levels can also be modified through dietary changes, exercise, and medication (like statins). A cholesterol level of 156 mg/dl is within a normal range, but it is still considered a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular health.

C. His occupation:

While his occupation as a soccer coach
may influence his stress level or physical activity, it is modifiable. He could potentially change occupations or alter the demands of his job if necessary, making it a modifiable risk factor.

Summary:

The unmodifiable risk factor
for hypertension in this case is D. His ethnicity, as African American males are at an increased risk for hypertension. His blood glucose, cholesterol level, and occupation are all modifiable risk factors.


2.

The nurse is assessing pain in a patient with appendicitis. Which initial statement or question will be most effective in eliciting information

  • "Tell me how you feel."

  • "Point to where you're feeling pain."

  • "Does your pain medication relieve your pain?"

  • "Coughing makes your pain worse, doesn't it?"

Explanation

The most effective initial statement or question in assessing pain in a patient with appendicitis is: B. "Point to where you're feeling pain."

Explanation:

This open-ended question encourages the patient to describe the location of their pain, which is an important part of the pain assessment. Pain location is a key factor in diagnosing conditions like appendicitis, where pain typically starts around the belly button (periumbilical area) and later localizes to the lower right quadrant.


Why the other options are less effective:

A. "Tell me how you feel." This question is too broad and non-specific. It may not prompt the patient to describe the pain in the necessary detail.

C. "Does your pain medication relieve your pain?" While this is an important follow-up question, it's not the best initial one. It assumes the patient has already received pain medication and doesn’t focus on identifying the pain characteristics.

D. "Coughing makes your pain worse, doesn't it?" This is a leading question and could bias the patient's response. It also doesn’t allow the patient to describe the pain on their own terms.

Summary:

Asking the patient to point to where they're feeling pain (option B) is an open-ended and effective way to assess the location and severity of pain.


3.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following types of medications should the nurse expect to administer for severe symptoms

  • Antibiotics

  • Antiperistaltics

  • Aminosalicylates

  • Corticosteroids

Explanation

Correct Answer: D) Corticosteroids

Explanation:

Corticosteroids are commonly used to manage severe symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), such as ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease, during flare-ups. These medications work by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system, which helps control symptoms such as pain, diarrhea, and bleeding. Corticosteroids like prednisone or hydrocortisone are typically used for short-term management of acute flare-ups due to their effectiveness in reducing inflammation quickly.


Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Antibiotics: Antibiotics are not the primary treatment for IBD itself, as the condition is an inflammatory disorder rather than an infection. However, antibiotics may be used if an infection occurs as a complication, such as in cases of abscesses or fistulas.

Antiperistaltics: Antiperistaltic drugs, like loperamide (Imodium), are typically used to control diarrhea by slowing down intestinal motility. While these may provide symptom relief in some cases, they are generally not used for severe IBD symptoms, as they can worsen certain types of inflammation and potentially lead to complications like toxic megacolon.

Aminosalicylates: Aminosalicylates, such as sulfasalazine or mesalamine, are commonly used in the treatment of mild to moderate IBD and are effective in reducing inflammation in the gut. However, they are not typically used for severe symptoms, where corticosteroids are preferred for their more potent anti-inflammatory effects.

Summary:

For clients with severe symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease, corticosteroids are the preferred treatment because of their potent anti-inflammatory effects. While other medications like antibiotics, antiperistaltics, and aminosalicylates play important roles in IBD management, they are typically not used for severe flare-ups.


4.

The nurse is providing care for a patient who has a sacral pressure ulcer with a wet-to-dry dressing. Which guideline is appropriate when caring for a patient with a wet-to-dry dressing

  • The wound should remain moist from the dressing.

  • The wet-to-dry dressing should be tightly packed into the wound.

  • The dressing should be allowed to dry before it's removed.

  • A plastic sheet-type dressing should cover the wet dressing

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. The dressing should be allowed to dry before it's removed.

Explanation:

A wet-to-dry dressing
is commonly used for wound debridement and is intended to dry out on the wound bed. The process involves applying a moist dressing (usually saline or another wound solution) to the wound, which allows for debridement of necrotic tissue. Once the dressing is dried, it adheres to the wound tissue, and when removed, it helps to pull away dead tissue from the wound.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. The wound should remain moist from the dressing.

This is not appropriate for a wet-to-dry dressing. The wet-to-dry dressing is meant to dry
on the wound bed, as it facilitates the removal of necrotic tissue. Keeping the wound moist is more appropriate for a moist-to-moist dressing.

B. The wet-to-dry dressing should be tightly packed into the wound.

The dressing should not be tightly packed
into the wound, as this can cause trauma when removed and potentially damage healthy tissue. It is better to loosely pack the dressing so that it can effectively absorb exudate without causing additional harm.

D. A plastic sheet-type dressing should cover the wet dressing.

Plastic sheeting is typically used for moist dressings, not wet-to-dry dressings. Wet-to-dry dressings are designed to be exposed to air so they can dry out and perform debridement.

Summary:

When caring for a patient with a wet-to-dry dressing
, the dressing should be allowed to dry before it is removed. This helps facilitate the debridement of necrotic tissue and promotes wound healing. The dressing should not be tightly packed or covered with plastic, as these actions would interfere with the dressing's function.


5.

While assessing an older adult client admitted 2 days ago with a fractured hip, the nurse notes that the client is confused, tachypneic, and restless. Which is the nurse's first action

  • Administering oxygen via nasal cannula

  • Applying restraints

  • Slowing the IV flow rate

  • Discontinuing the pain medication

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula

Rationale:

The client’s symptoms—confusion, tachypnea (rapid breathing), and restlessness—are indicative of hypoxia
(low oxygen levels) or a possible fat embolism syndrome (FES), which is a known complication of fractures, especially long bones like the femur. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention to improve oxygenation and prevent further complications such as respiratory failure.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Applying restraints

Restraining a confused patient is not an appropriate first action. The confusion may be due to hypoxia, and treating the underlying cause (providing oxygen) is the priority. Restraints can also increase agitation and make the situation worse.

C. Slowing the IV flow rate

Slowing IV fluids is not the appropriate first intervention unless there is evidence of fluid overload. The client’s symptoms are more consistent with hypoxia or fat embolism syndrome, not fluid overload.

D. Discontinuing the pain medication

While some pain medications (e.g., opioids) can cause confusion, pain control is still essential for recovery. The priority is addressing the hypoxia, and discontinuing pain medication without assessing its effects may lead to unnecessary discomfort.

Summary:

The first nursing action
should be to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to address hypoxia and potential fat embolism syndrome. The nurse should then further assess the client, monitor oxygen saturation, and notify the healthcare provider for additional interventions.


6.

The nurse is caring for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) who has a prescription for the antacid magnesium hydroxide/aluminum hydrate (Maalox). Which of the following serum laboratory findings should the nurse check before administering the medication

  • Sodium

  • Calcium

  • Magnesium

  • Potassium

Explanation

Correct Answer: Magnesium

Explanation:

Magnesium hydroxide is a component of Maalox, and it can affect magnesium levels in the blood. Excess magnesium can lead to hypermagnesemia, which can cause symptoms like bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, and muscle weakness. It is important to check the client's serum magnesium levels before administering this medication, especially in clients with renal impairment, as they are at higher risk for magnesium toxicity.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Sodium – Maalox does not directly affect sodium levels, so there is no need to monitor sodium levels before administration.

Calcium – While calcium levels should be monitored for certain conditions, Maalox is not specifically related to significant changes in calcium levels.

Potassium – Potassium is important to monitor in various conditions, but it is not directly impacted by magnesium hydroxide/aluminum hydroxide therapy.

Summary:

Before administering Maalox, the nurse should primarily check the serum magnesium
level to ensure it is within the normal range and to prevent hypermagnesemia, especially in clients with renal concerns.


7.

Postoperative care should include measures to prevent dislocation of a patient's new hip prosthesis. Which of the following interventions would achieve this objective

  • Keeping the affected leg in a position of adduction

  • Using pressure relief measures, other than turning, to prevent pressure ulcers

  • Placing the leg in abduction

  • Keeping the hip flexed by placing pillows under the patient's knee

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Placing the leg in abduction

Rationale:

After a total hip replacement, preventing dislocation of the new hip prosthesis is crucial. The correct position to maintain proper hip alignment and prevent dislocation is abduction
(moving the leg away from the midline). This positioning helps keep the femoral head securely in the acetabular socket, reducing the risk of anterior or posterior dislocation. To achieve this, an abduction pillow or wedge is often used between the patient's legs, especially when they are lying supine.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Keeping the affected leg in a position of adduction

Incorrect because adduction (moving the leg toward the body's midline or crossing legs) can cause the hip to dislocate. The prosthetic femoral head can shift out of the acetabulum, leading to instability and requiring medical intervention.

B. Using pressure relief measures, other than turning, to prevent pressure ulcers

Incorrect because, while pressure relief is important postoperatively to prevent skin breakdown, it is not directly related to preventing hip dislocation. Turning can still be done safely while maintaining proper hip precautions.

D. Keeping the hip flexed by placing pillows under the patient’s knee

Incorrect because excessive hip flexion (>90 degrees) increases the risk of posterior hip dislocation. Instead of placing a pillow under the knee, the patient should be advised to keep their hips in a neutral or slightly extended position when lying down.

Summary:

To prevent hip dislocation after total hip replacement, the affected leg should be placed in abduction
(option C), using an abduction pillow or wedge. Adduction (option A) and excessive hip flexion (option D) increase the risk of dislocation and should be avoided. While pressure relief (option B) is important for skin integrity, it does not prevent hip dislocation.


8.

In teaching a patient about the disorder, the nurse informs the patient that the organisms that cause pyelonephritis most commonly reach the kidneys through

  • The bloodstream

  • The lymphatic system

  • A descending infection

  • An ascending infection

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. An ascending infection

Rationale:

Pyelonephritis (kidney infection) most commonly occurs when bacteria travel from the lower urinary tract (urethra and bladder) up the ureters into the kidneys
—this is called an ascending infection. The most common causative organism is Escherichia coli (E. coli), which typically originates from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and enters the urinary tract through the urethra.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. The bloodstream 

While hematogenous (bloodborne) infections can occur, they are less common and usually happen in severely immunocompromised patients or those with bacteremia (sepsis).

B. The lymphatic system 

The lymphatic spread of infection to the kidneys is rare. This route is more associated with infections from the bowel or reproductive organs, but it is not the primary cause of pyelonephritis.

C. A descending infection 

The term "descending infection" typically refers to infections that originate in the bloodstream (hematogenous spread) rather than the urinary tract. This is uncommon in pyelonephritis.

Summary:

The most common route
for bacteria to reach the kidneys in pyelonephritis is through an ascending infection from the urethra and bladder, making Option D the correct answer.


9.

Causes of secondary hypertension would include

  • Alcohol abuse

  • Diabetes

  • Obesity

  • Renal artery stenosis

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Renal artery stenosis

Rationale:

Secondary hypertension is high blood pressure caused by an underlying condition or disease. Renal artery stenosis is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension. It occurs when the arteries that supply blood to the kidneys become narrowed, leading to reduced blood flow to the kidneys. This triggers the kidneys to release renin, which increases blood pressure. Treatment of the underlying condition, such as surgery or medication, can help resolve or reduce the hypertension.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Alcohol abuse:

Alcohol abuse can lead to increased blood pressure
and is considered a risk factor for primary hypertension, but it is not a direct cause of secondary hypertension. Primary hypertension occurs without an identifiable underlying condition, whereas secondary hypertension has a specific cause.

B. Diabetes:

Diabetes, particularly Type 2 diabetes, is a significant risk factor for developing primary hypertension, but it is not a direct cause of secondary hypertension. However, poorly controlled diabetes can contribute to kidney damage, potentially leading to secondary hypertension due to diabetic nephropathy.

C. Obesity:

Obesity is a major risk factor for primary hypertension and can worsen existing hypertension. However, it is not a direct cause of secondary hypertension. Obesity may contribute to conditions like sleep apnea or insulin resistance, which can lead to hypertension, but these are still typically classified as primary hypertension risk factors.

Summary:

The most appropriate answer is D. Renal artery stenosis
, which is a condition that directly causes secondary hypertension by affecting kidney blood flow. Alcohol abuse, diabetes, and obesity are risk factors for primary hypertension, not causes of secondary hypertension.


10.

The nurse is assessing a client who reports moderate pain in the left lower quadrant, with nausea and bloating. The nurse suspects the client may be experiencing diverticulitis. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client

  • "Does the pain radiate to your back?"

  • "Have you vomited in the past week?"

  • "How much protein do you typically include in your diet each day?"

  • "Have you had any changes in your bowel habits?"

Explanation

Correct Answer: "Have you had any changes in your bowel habits?"

Explanation:

Diverticulitis, which is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can form in the walls of the colon, is commonly associated with changes in bowel habits
. These changes might include diarrhea, constipation, or an alteration in the regularity of bowel movements. Asking the client about any recent changes in bowel habits helps the nurse assess for this key symptom of diverticulitis.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

"Does the pain radiate to your back?":

Pain radiating to the back is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis or kidney stones, not typically diverticulitis, which causes localized pain, often in the lower left quadrant.

"Have you vomited in the past week?":

While nausea and vomiting can occur with diverticulitis, this question does not directly focus on the most common symptoms of diverticulitis, which are related to bowel function. Nausea may be a secondary symptom, but asking specifically about bowel habits is more relevant to the condition.

"How much protein do you typically include in your diet each day?":

This question is not directly related to diverticulitis. While a high-fat, low-fiber diet can contribute to the development of diverticular disease, asking about protein intake is not as immediately relevant as asking about bowel habits.

Summary:

When assessing a client for diverticulitis
, it is most important to ask about changes in bowel habits, as this is a key symptom of the condition. Pain in the left lower quadrant, nausea, and bloating are often associated with diverticulitis, and bowel habit changes help confirm the suspicion.


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Frequently Asked Question

The exam covers a wide range of topics including cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and renal systems, as well as nursing interventions for common medical-surgical conditions.

The exam consists of multiple-choice questions, short-answer questions, and case study scenarios that test both theoretical knowledge and clinical decision-making.

Review lecture notes, textbooks, and any study guides provided by the instructor. Practice applying nursing theories to clinical situations, and be familiar with common procedures, medications, and pathophysiologies.

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