ATI PN 112 Exam 3 Urinary/Male/Female Reproduction 12/25
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Free ATI PN 112 Exam 3 Urinary/Male/Female Reproduction 12/25 Questions
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has benign prostatic hypertrophy and has a new prescription for finasteride. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Decreased libido is an adverse effect of the medication
- B. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels will increase while taking this medication
- C. Expect to experience a response from the medication in 1 week
- D. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice
Explanation
Finasteride, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor, can reduce dihydrotestosterone levels, leading to adverse effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculatory disorders. Clients should be informed that sexual side effects are possible and to report any persistent changes to their provider. PSA levels typically decrease with finasteride therapy, and the therapeutic response may take several months rather than 1 week. There are no known interactions with grapefruit juice, so this restriction is not necessary.
A nurse is assisting in planning care for a client who has cystitis. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Inform the client that taking Vitamin E supplements will decrease the incidence of cystitis.
- B. Instruct the client to take antibiotics until dysuria is no longer present.
- C. Direct the client to wash underclothing in bleach.
- D. Instruct the client to avoid drinking caffeinated beverages.
Explanation
Caffeine is a known bladder irritant that can increase urinary urgency, frequency, and discomfort, which are common symptoms of cystitis. Advising the client to avoid caffeinated beverages helps minimize bladder irritation and promotes symptom relief. This intervention supports overall comfort, aids in reducing exacerbation of inflammation, and complements medical treatment such as antibiotics. By avoiding bladder irritants, the client can better manage the infection and prevent worsening of urinary symptoms.
A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a client who has ovarian cancer. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Unexplained weight loss
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Abdominal bloating
Explanation
Abdominal bloating is a common early manifestation of ovarian cancer, often caused by tumor growth or ascites. Clients may also report abdominal discomfort, fullness, or changes in bowel or urinary patterns due to pressure on surrounding organs. Recognizing bloating as a potential sign of ovarian malignancy is important for early detection, timely diagnostic evaluation, and initiation of treatment to improve outcomes.
A nurse is providing medication teaching about sildenafil to a client who has erectile dysfunction. Which of the following statements is the nurse's highest priority?
- A. "This medication does not prevent sexually transmitted infections."
- B. "Take the medication before you plan to engage in sexual intercourse."
- C. "This medication can cause a headache."
- D. "If you have an erection for more than four hours, seek emergency treatment."
Explanation
The highest priority teaching point for sildenafil is the risk of priapism, a prolonged and painful erection lasting more than four hours, which is a medical emergency. Untreated priapism can cause permanent tissue damage and erectile dysfunction. While other information—such as timing of the medication, potential side effects, and STI prevention—is important, preventing serious complications that could lead to permanent harm takes precedence in client education.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hr postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Oral temperature of 37.5° C (99.5° F)
- B. Pain level of 4 on a 0 to 10 rating scale
- C. Emesis of 100 mL
- D. Thick, red-colored urine
Explanation
Thick, red-colored urine after TURP may indicate active bleeding from the surgical site, which is a potential emergency. Postoperative hemorrhage can lead to hypovolemia, hemodynamic instability, and clot retention, making it the priority finding to report. While mild fever, moderate pain, and small-volume emesis are expected postoperative findings that require monitoring, thick red urine requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent serious complications.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has AIDS. The nurse notes that the client has multiple, widespread purplish-brown skin lesions. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed which of the following types of skin lesions?
- A. Actinic keratosis
- B. Basal cell carcinoma
- C. Actinic dermatitis
- D. Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation
Kaposi's sarcoma is a vascular malignancy commonly associated with AIDS and appears as purplish, brown, or red lesions on the skin or mucous membranes. These lesions result from abnormal growth of blood vessels and can occur on the skin, gastrointestinal tract, or respiratory system. Their widespread distribution in an immunocompromised client strongly suggests Kaposi's sarcoma. The other options involve sun damage or localized skin cancers and do not present with this characteristic coloration or association with AIDS.
A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching to a client who is at high risk for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "A decreased CA125 level places me at greater risk for ovarian cancer."
- B. "I will develop ovarian cancer if I have the BRCA1 gene."
- C. "My doctor will perform pelvic exams to detect for ovarian cancer."
- D. "I will have regular Pap tests to monitor for ovarian cancer."
Explanation
Pelvic exams are part of routine surveillance for women at high risk for ovarian cancer, allowing the provider to detect masses or abnormalities early. CA125 levels can be elevated in ovarian cancer but a decreased level does not increase risk. Having the BRCA1 gene increases the likelihood of developing ovarian cancer but does not guarantee it. Pap tests screen for cervical, not ovarian, cancer. Understanding the role of pelvic exams reflects appropriate comprehension of preventive monitoring.
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who has gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain information about the client's recent sexual partners
- B. Check for the presence of a primary lesion or chancre
- C. Instruct the client about preventing reinfection by using a diaphragm
- D. Remind the client that gonorrhea is a virus, therefore it cannot be cured
Explanation
Obtaining information about recent sexual partners is essential in managing gonorrhea because it allows for partner notification, testing, and treatment to prevent reinfection and further spread of the infection. Gonorrhea is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection that requires prompt antibiotic treatment. Identifying and treating sexual contacts helps break the chain of transmission and reduces the risk of complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, and systemic infection. This intervention is a critical component of public health management for sexually transmitted infections.
A nurse is caring for a male client who reports nausea and vomiting and is receiving IV fluid therapy. The client's BUN is 32 mg/dL, creatinine 1.1 mg/dL, and hematocrit 50%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Continue routine care because the results are within the expected reference range
- B. Evaluate urine output for amount and urine for specific gravity
- C. Decrease the IV fluid infusion rate and limit oral fluid intake
- D. Collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity
Explanation
The client’s elevated BUN and hematocrit suggest possible dehydration, likely due to nausea and vomiting, even though creatinine is within the normal range. Evaluating urine output and specific gravity helps assess kidney perfusion and hydration status. Monitoring these parameters guides appropriate fluid replacement and prevents complications such as acute kidney injury. Continuing routine care or limiting fluids would risk worsening dehydration, and a urine culture is not indicated without signs of infection.
A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client about how to care for a newly created ileal conduit. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Trim the opening of the ostomy seal to be 1/2 in. wider than the stoma
- B. Apply lotion to the peristomal skin when changing the ostomy pouch
- C. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is 2/3 full
- D. Change the ostomy pouch daily
Explanation
Clients with an ileal conduit should empty the ostomy pouch when it is about two-thirds full to prevent leakage, reduce pressure on the seal, and maintain skin integrity. Overfilling can cause the pouch to detach or urine to leak onto the peristomal skin, increasing the risk of irritation and infection. Proper emptying ensures hygiene, comfort, and effective appliance management, supporting the client’s independence in ostomy care.
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