ATI PN 112 Exam 3 Urinary/Male/Female Reproduction 12/25

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Free ATI PN 112 Exam 3 Urinary/Male/Female Reproduction 12/25 Questions

1.

A nurse is collecting data from a male client who has genital herpes. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

  • Warts on the internal or external genitalia

  • Painful ulcers on the penis

  • Red rash on the palms of the hands bilaterally

  • Temperature = 37.6° C (99.6° F)

  • Yellow or green drainage from the urethra

Explanation

Explanation

B. Painful ulcers on the penis
Genital herpes typically causes painful vesicles or ulcers on the penis due to infection with the herpes simplex virus. These lesions are often accompanied by itching, burning, or discomfort and may recur periodically.

D. Temperature = 37.6° C (99.6° F)
A mild fever is a common systemic manifestation during an initial outbreak of genital herpes. The body’s immune response to the viral infection can produce low-grade fever, malaise, and fatigue.

2.

A nurse is collecting data on a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse should recognize which of the following findings is the priority?

  • The client has bright red urine in his urinary catheter

  • The client has small blood clots in his urinary catheter

  • The client reports a continuous urge to void

  • The client reports burning around the urinary catheter

Explanation

Explanation

A continuous urge to void in a client after TURP can indicate bladder spasms or obstruction of the catheter, which can lead to urinary retention, increased bladder pressure, and risk of hemorrhage. Addressing this symptom promptly is a priority to prevent complications. While bright red urine and small blood clots are expected findings early postoperatively and burning may occur due to catheter irritation, a persistent urge to void signals a potentially urgent problem requiring immediate intervention, such as catheter irrigation or adjustment.

3.

A nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Which of the following reactions from the client should the nurse initially expect?

  • Denial

  • Acceptance

  • Anger

  • Bargaining

Explanation

Explanation

Denial is often the initial reaction when a client receives a serious diagnosis like ovarian cancer. It serves as a temporary coping mechanism, allowing the client time to process the information and gradually come to terms with the reality of the illness. Recognizing denial helps the nurse provide appropriate emotional support, reinforce information as the client becomes ready, and facilitate involvement in treatment planning and decision-making.

4.

A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data for a 45-year-old client who is having manifestations associated with perimenopause. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • Report of urinary retention

  • Elevated body temperature above 37.8° C (100° F)

  • Elevated blood pressure above 140/90

  • Report of dryness with vaginal intercourse

Explanation

Explanation

Perimenopause is associated with decreasing estrogen levels, which can cause vaginal mucosal atrophy and dryness. This leads to discomfort or pain during sexual intercourse (dyspareunia), which is a common symptom in women undergoing the transition to menopause. Other options, such as urinary retention, elevated fever, or hypertension, are not typical manifestations of perimenopause and may indicate unrelated medical conditions that require separate evaluation.

5.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client who has acute kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • Hemoglobin 19 g/dL

  • Serum creatinine 6 mg/dL

  • Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L

  • BUN 8 mg/dL

Explanation

Explanation

In acute kidney injury, the kidneys’ ability to filter waste products is impaired, leading to an accumulation of creatinine in the blood. A serum creatinine level of 6 mg/dL is significantly elevated, reflecting decreased renal clearance. Monitoring creatinine is essential for assessing the severity of kidney injury, guiding fluid and electrolyte management, and evaluating the effectiveness of interventions such as dialysis. Other laboratory values listed, such as elevated hemoglobin or low potassium, are not typical findings in acute kidney injury.

6.

A nurse is providing care to a client who has peritonitis. Which of the following conditions is the highest priority for the nurse to monitor?

  • Respiratory failure

  • Sepsis

  • Heart attack

  • Diabetes

Explanation

Explanation

Peritonitis is an infection of the peritoneal cavity that can rapidly progress to sepsis, a life-threatening systemic inflammatory response. Monitoring for signs of sepsis, such as fever, tachycardia, hypotension, altered mental status, and elevated white blood cell count, is the highest priority because prompt recognition and treatment are critical to prevent septic shock and multi-organ failure. While respiratory failure, heart attack, and diabetes are important considerations, sepsis presents the most immediate threat to life in clients with peritonitis.

7.

A nurse in a long-term care facility is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign the AP?

  • Attending to a client who has fallen out of bed

  • Initiating an enteral tube feeding

  • Reinforcing teaching regarding bathing with a client

  • Educating a client on the use of an incentive spirometer

Explanation

Explanation

The assistive personnel (AP) can perform tasks that involve routine care and reinforcing previously taught instructions, such as assisting a client with bathing or reminding the client about proper bathing techniques. This does not require independent nursing judgment or assessment. Tasks like attending to a client who has fallen, initiating an enteral tube feeding, or educating on an incentive spirometer require nursing assessment, clinical judgment, and licensure, and therefore cannot be delegated to an AP.

8.

A nurse manager in a health clinic is discussing complications associated with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements should be included in the discussion?

  • "A complication of syphilis during pregnancy is low-birth-weight infants."

  • "Human papillomavirus can lead to cancer of the cervix."

  • "A complication of chlamydia in males is meningitis."

  • "Herpes simplex virus can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease."

Explanation

Explanation

Human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly high-risk strains, is strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with oncogenic HPV strains can cause abnormal cellular changes in the cervix, which may progress to malignancy if not detected and treated early. Educating healthcare staff about this complication emphasizes the importance of HPV vaccination, regular cervical screening (Pap tests), and patient counseling to prevent long-term adverse outcomes associated with the infection.

9.

A nurse is talking with a client who has to come to the clinic for HIV testing. The nurse should explain to the client that, after the laboratory has the enzyme immunoassay (EIA) results, it will use which of the following tests to confirm the diagnosis?

  • Viral load test

  • Western blot assay

  • CD4+ T-cell count

  • Quantitative RNA assay

Explanation

Explanation

The Western blot assay is used to confirm a positive result from an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) for HIV. The EIA is a highly sensitive screening test that detects antibodies to HIV, but it can yield false positives. The Western blot provides a more specific confirmation by identifying antibodies to specific HIV proteins. This two-step testing process ensures accurate diagnosis before initiating treatment or counseling. Viral load tests and CD4 counts assess disease progression, while quantitative RNA assays measure viral RNA but are not used for initial confirmation.

10.

A nurse on a medical unit is planning the shift assignments. The nurse may delegate collection of which of the following specimens to an assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.)

  • Wound culture specimen

  • Arterial blood gas specimen

  • Urinalysis specimen

  • Sputum specimen

  • Stool specimen for blood

Explanation

Explanation

C. Urinalysis specimen
The collection of a urine sample can be delegated to an AP because it is a routine, non-invasive task that does not require professional judgment. The AP can assist the client with proper collection techniques, ensure the specimen is obtained cleanly (such as a clean-catch midstream sample), label it accurately, and transport it to the laboratory. The nurse remains responsible for interpreting results and acting on abnormal findings.

D. Sputum specimen
APs can collect sputum specimens when the client is able to expectorate effectively. The nurse provides instructions on proper technique, including rinsing the mouth before collection and ensuring the sample is from deep in the lungs. The AP collects the specimen, labels it, and sends it to the lab. This delegation allows the nurse to focus on assessment, evaluation, and treatment planning.

E. Stool specimen for blood
Collecting stool samples for occult blood testing is within the AP’s scope of practice. The AP ensures proper handling, follows infection control measures, and labels the specimen correctly. The nurse retains responsibility for reviewing test results, making clinical decisions based on findings, and providing follow-up care if the result is positive.

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