ATI PN 112 Exam 3 Urinary/Male/Female Reproduction 12/25
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Free ATI PN 112 Exam 3 Urinary/Male/Female Reproduction 12/25 Questions
A nurse's inadvertent medication error results in a severe allergic reaction and prolongs the client's hospitalization. The client could rightfully sue the nurse for which of the following?
- Battery
- Assault
- Malpractice
- Abuse
Explanation
Malpractice occurs when a healthcare professional fails to provide care in accordance with established standards, resulting in injury, harm, or prolonged hospitalization. In this scenario, the nurse’s medication error caused a severe allergic reaction, which constitutes professional negligence. Malpractice claims require proof that the nurse had a duty to the client, breached that duty, and caused harm directly linked to the breach. This legal action is distinct from battery, assault, or abuse, which involve intentional or physical harm rather than negligent professional conduct.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) and has a continuous bladder irrigation in place. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
- Contact the surgeon if the client reports a continual need to void.
- Notify the surgeon if the urine is bright red or has large clots.
- Add the amount of bladder irrigation to the total output.
- Make sure the drainage tubing is patent and without obstruction.
- Use sterile technique when preparing the irrigation solution.
Explanation
A. Contact the surgeon if the client reports a continual need to void.
A constant urge to void can indicate that the catheter is blocked by a clot or that bladder spasms are occurring. This is not expected and may signal obstruction of the catheter or inadequate drainage, requiring provider notification.
B. Notify the surgeon if the urine is bright red or has large clots.
Bright red bleeding or large clots on the first postoperative day is abnormal and suggests hemorrhage. Continuous bladder irrigation should produce light pink urine; any significant deviation requires immediate reporting.
D. Make sure the drainage tubing is patent and without obstruction.
Maintaining tubing patency ensures that irrigation flows correctly and prevents clot formation and bladder distention. This is essential to avoid postoperative complications.
E. Use sterile technique when preparing the irrigation solution.
Sterile technique prevents introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, significantly reducing the risk of infection during continuous bladder irrigation.
A nurse is collecting data for a female client who has genital herpes. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- Oliguria
- Polyuria
- Dysuria
- Anuria
Explanation
Genital herpes commonly causes painful urination (dysuria) due to lesions and inflammation of the genital mucosa. The viral infection can irritate the urethra, making urination uncomfortable or burning. Other urinary changes such as oliguria, polyuria, or anuria are not typical manifestations of genital herpes and usually indicate separate urinary tract or renal conditions. Recognizing dysuria helps the nurse provide appropriate symptomatic relief and patient education regarding hygiene and antiviral management.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the frequency of breast self-examination (BSE) with a young adult client. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- "I will perform BSE the first day of each month."
- "The best day to perform BSE is 7 days after the menstrual cycle begins."
- "I will perform BSE every month during ovulation."
- "The best day to perform BSE is the first day of the menstrual cycle."
Explanation
Performing BSE 7 days after the start of the menstrual cycle is recommended because breast tissue is least tender and least swollen at this time, making it easier to detect lumps or abnormalities. Regular monthly examination on this schedule helps the client become familiar with the normal feel of her breasts and facilitates early detection of changes, which is critical for timely evaluation and treatment. This timing aligns with the cyclical changes in breast tissue related to hormone fluctuations.
A nurse is caring for a client who is HIV-positive and is 1 day postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following actions requires the nurse to wear a gown as personal protective equipment (PPE)?
- Changing a wound dressing
- Administering a medication by IV intermittent bolus
- Talking with the client at the bedside
- Administering an IM injection
Explanation
Wearing a gown is required when there is a risk of contact with blood, bodily fluids, or excretions. Changing a wound dressing can expose the nurse to blood or other potentially infectious material, making gown use necessary to prevent contamination of clothing and reduce the risk of infection transmission. Administering medications, performing injections, or talking with the client generally does not involve contact with infectious fluids and does not require a gown.
A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client about how to care for a newly created ileal conduit. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- Trim the opening of the ostomy seal to be 1/2 in. wider than the stoma
- Apply lotion to the peristomal skin when changing the ostomy pouch
- Empty the ostomy pouch when it is 2/3 full
- Change the ostomy pouch daily
Explanation
Clients with an ileal conduit should empty the ostomy pouch when it is about two-thirds full to prevent leakage, reduce pressure on the seal, and maintain skin integrity. Overfilling can cause the pouch to detach or urine to leak onto the peristomal skin, increasing the risk of irritation and infection. Proper emptying ensures hygiene, comfort, and effective appliance management, supporting the client’s independence in ostomy care.
A nurse is assisting with the care of an older adult client who was admitted through the ED with new onset of confusion, decreased blood pressure, and report of low back pain.
Vital signs on admission:
Temperature: 37.2° C (98.9° F)
Heart rate: 108/min
Respiratory rate: 24/min
Blood pressure 89/58 mm Hg
O2 Saturation 95% on room air
Medical History
80-year-old female, lives with daughter. Daughter states client is typically alert and oriented but began to display confusion. Report of dizziness and low back pain.
History:
Rheumatoid arthritis
Hyperlipidemia
Psoriasis
Current Home Medications:
Pravastatin 40 mg PO at bedtime
Diclofenac 75 mg PO BID
Nurses' Notes
Febrile, tachycardia with no dysrhythmias noted on cardiac monitor; tachypneic, chest clear on auscultation; Bowel sounds x 4 quadrants; voided 75 mL of cloudy urine, clean catch urine specimens obtained for urinalysis and C&S, sent to laboratory. Client reports burning on urination and increasing back pain and suprapubic pain; bolus of 250 mL 0.45% sodium chloride IV complete.
Current Vital Signs
Temperature: 39.3°C (102.8° F)
Heart rate: 93/min
Respiratory rate: 24/min
Blood pressure: 92/58 mm Hg
O2 saturation: 95% on room air
Call placed to provider for update on client's condition and laboratory findings.
Which of the following findings require immediate follow-up by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
- Cardiac assessment
- Respiratory assessment
- WBC count
- Hgb & Hct levels
- Temperature
- Pain
- Blood pressure
- Urinalysis
Explanation
A. Cardiac assessment
The client’s hypotension and tachycardia may indicate early sepsis or shock. Continuous monitoring of cardiac status is essential to identify hemodynamic instability and prevent cardiovascular compromise.
B. Respiratory assessment
Tachypnea may signal systemic infection or early respiratory compromise. Frequent respiratory monitoring ensures timely detection of hypoxia or sepsis-related respiratory distress.
C. WBC count
An elevated WBC count is a key marker of infection. Immediate review helps assess infection severity and guides prompt initiation of appropriate interventions.
E. Temperature
The client’s rising fever (37.2°C → 39.3°C) indicates worsening infection. Timely follow-up is critical to manage potential sepsis and prevent further complications.
G. Blood pressure
Persistent hypotension (BP 89/58 → 92/58 mm Hg) can indicate shock. Prompt evaluation and interventions such as fluid resuscitation are required to maintain perfusion and organ function.
H. Urinalysis
Cloudy urine with burning on urination and low output suggests a urinary tract infection, likely the source of sepsis. Rapid assessment is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and initiate treatment.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who takes furosemide and has a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to include in his daily diet?
- Cabbage
- Bananas
- Cheddar cheese
- White rice
Explanation
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, as indicated by the client’s serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L. Bananas are high in potassium and help replenish levels, supporting proper cardiac and muscular function. Encouraging potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, and leafy greens is an important dietary intervention for clients taking potassium-depleting diuretics. Other options such as cabbage, cheddar cheese, and white rice are low in potassium and do not effectively address hypokalemia.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about the use of a condom to prevent transmission of sexually transmitted infections. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- "Use the condom for no more than two sex acts."
- "Using an oral contraceptive without a condom decreases the risk of transmitting an STI."
- "Check the expiration date on the condom before you use it."
- "Using a condom decreases but does not completely eliminate the risk of transmission of STIs."
- "Use an oil-based lubricant with condoms."
Explanation
C. "Check the expiration date on the condom before you use it."
Condoms can degrade over time, making them more likely to break or tear. Checking the expiration date ensures the condom is effective in preventing both pregnancy and the transmission of sexually transmitted infections.
D. "Using a condom decreases but does not completely eliminate the risk of transmission of STIs."
While condoms significantly reduce the risk of STIs, they do not provide complete protection because infections can be transmitted via skin-to-skin contact in areas not covered by the condom. Clients should understand that condoms are a critical preventive measure but not 100% protective.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a female client who has acute cystitis and is to start therapy with phenazopyridine. Which of the following information should the nurse give to the client?
- "Use birth control while taking this medication to prevent pregnancy."
- "Take the medication on an empty stomach."
- "Wear a protective pad under clothing to prevent staining."
- "Finish the medication in order to resolve the infection."
Explanation
C. "Wear a protective pad under clothing to prevent staining."
Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic used to relieve the discomfort of acute cystitis. It commonly causes urine, sweat, and tears to turn an orange-red color, which can permanently stain clothing or undergarments. Wearing a protective pad helps prevent staining. Phenazopyridine does not treat the infection itself, so "finishing the medication" is not applicable—it is taken only for symptom relief. It should be taken with food to prevent stomach upset, and it does not affect pregnancy or birth control.
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