ATI NUR 520 Final Mcelroy SP 25

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Ace Your Test with ATI NUR 520 Final Mcelroy SP 25 Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free ATI NUR 520 Final Mcelroy SP 25 Questions

1.

The nurse knows the most critical concern for a patient with peptic ulcer disease is:

  • A) Gastric bleeding
  • B) Heartburn
  • C) Insomnia
  • D) Malnutrition

Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Gastric bleeding
Explanation:
The most serious and potentially life-threatening complication of peptic ulcer disease is gastric bleeding. This can occur when an ulcer erodes through the lining of the stomach or duodenum and damages a blood vessel. Symptoms may include vomiting blood (hematemesis), black tarry stools (melena), or signs of shock. Prompt recognition and treatment are critical.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Heartburn:
While uncomfortable and common, heartburn is a symptom—not a critical complication.
C) Insomnia:
May result from discomfort or medication use, but it is not a life-threatening issue related to peptic ulcers.
D) Malnutrition:
Can occur over time due to decreased appetite or pain with eating, but it develops gradually and is less immediately dangerous than bleeding.
2.

A patient has had blood pressures of 150/95 and 148/90 mm Hg on two separate office visits. The patient reports a blood pressure of 145/92 mm Hg taken in an ambulatory setting. The patient's diagnostic tests are all normal. The nurse will expect this patient's provider to order:

  • A) An adrenergic neuron blocker
  • B) A beta blocker
  • C) Counseling on lifestyle changes
  • D) A thiazide diuretic

Explanation

Correct Answer: C) Counseling on lifestyle changes
Explanation:
This patient meets the criteria for Stage 1 hypertension (systolic 130–139 or diastolic 80–89 mm Hg), but with normal diagnostic tests and no evidence of end-organ damage, the first-line recommendation is lifestyle modification. These include dietary changes, exercise, weight loss, limiting alcohol, and reducing sodium intake. Medications are typically considered if lifestyle changes are ineffective or if the patient has additional risk factors.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) An adrenergic neuron blocker:
These are rarely used due to significant side effects and are not first-line treatment.
B) A beta blocker:
Beta blockers are not recommended as initial therapy for uncomplicated hypertension unless the patient has other conditions like heart failure or post-MI.
D) A thiazide diuretic:
Although effective, this medication would be considered after lifestyle changes have been attempted and failed or if additional risk factors exist.
3.

A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps, but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest?

  • A) The patient should increase the dose until pain is controlled.
  • B) The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead.
  • C) The patient should use acetaminophen because of its anti-inflammatory effects.
  • D) The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye's syndrome.

Explanation

Correct Answer: B) The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead.
Explanation:
First-generation NSAIDs like ibuprofen or naproxen are often more effective than aspirin for treating menstrual cramps, as they provide stronger COX inhibition, which reduces the production of prostaglandins responsible for uterine contractions and pain. These medications are commonly recommended for dysmenorrhea.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) The patient should increase the dose until pain is controlled:
Increasing aspirin dosage without guidance can raise the risk of toxicity and bleeding.
C) The patient should use acetaminophen because of its anti-inflammatory effects:
Acetaminophen is not a strong anti-inflammatory and is generally less effective for menstrual cramps compared to NSAIDs.
D) The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye's syndrome:
Reye's syndrome is a concern with aspirin use in children and teenagers, especially during viral illnesses—not in adult women treating menstrual cramps.
4.

A patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes asks a nurse, "How does insulin normally work in my body?" The nurse explains that normal insulin has which action in the body?

  • A) It stimulates the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.
  • B) It promotes the synthesis of amino acids into glucose.
  • C) It stimulates the pancreas to reabsorb glucose.
  • D) It promotes the passage of glucose into cells for energy.

Explanation

Correct Answer: D) It promotes the passage of glucose into cells for energy.
Explanation:
Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that allows glucose to enter cells, where it can be used for energy. Without insulin, glucose stays in the bloodstream, leading to high blood sugar levels. In type 1 diabetes, the body doesn’t produce insulin, so glucose can’t move into the cells properly.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) It stimulates the liver to convert glycogen to glucose:
This is the action of glucagon, not insulin. Insulin promotes glucose storage, not release.
B) It promotes the synthesis of amino acids into glucose:
This describes gluconeogenesis, a process insulin typically inhibits.
C) It stimulates the pancreas to reabsorb glucose:
The pancreas produces insulin; it doesn’t reabsorb glucose. This is not a function of insulin.
5.

The healthcare provider orders Valium 8 mg IV now. The concentration available is 5 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?

  • A) 1.4 mL
  • B) 1.8 mL
  • C) 1.2 mL
  • D) 1.6 mL

Explanation

Correct Answer: D) 1.6 mL
Explanation:
Use the formula:
Dose ordered ÷ Concentration = Volume to administer
8 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 1.6 mL
The nurse will need to administer 1.6 mL of Valium to provide the prescribed 8 mg dose.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) 1.4 mL:
1.4 mL × 5 mg/mL = 7 mg — too little.
B) 1.8 mL:
1.8 mL × 5 mg/mL = 9 mg — too much.
C) 1.2 mL:
1.2 mL × 5 mg/mL = 6 mg — too little.
6.

The healthcare provider orders Lasix 40 mg IV now. The concentration available is Lasix 20 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?

  • A) 5 mL
  • B) 6 mL
  • C) 4 mL
  • D) 2 mL

Explanation

Correct Answer: D) 2 mL
Explanation:
Use the formula:
Ordered dose ÷ Concentration = Volume to administer
40 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL = 2 mL
The patient will receive 2 mL of the IV Lasix solution to get the prescribed 40 mg dose.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) 5 mL:
5 mL × 20 mg/mL = 100 mg, which is more than ordered.
B) 6 mL:
6 mL × 20 mg/mL = 120 mg, which exceeds the prescribed dose.
C) 4 mL:
4 mL × 20 mg/mL = 80 mg, which is twice the ordered amount.
7.

A patient has allergies and takes an antihistamine. The patient wants to know how the drug works. The nurse understands that antihistamines work because they are what?

  • A) Agonists
  • B) Antagonists
  • C) Antidotes
  • D) Activators

Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Antagonists
Explanation:
Antihistamines work by acting as antagonists at histamine (H1) receptor sites. This means they block histamine from binding to its receptors, which helps reduce allergy symptoms such as itching, sneezing, and runny nose. They do not activate the receptors; instead, they prevent histamine from causing its usual effects during allergic reactions.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Agonists:
These stimulate or activate receptors to produce a response. Antihistamines block rather than activate.
C) Antidotes:
Used to counteract poisons or overdoses, not allergy symptoms.
D) Activators:
Not a standard pharmacologic term. Antihistamines do not activate receptors—they inhibit them.
8.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has jaundice, dark urine, malaise, light-colored stools, nausea, and vomiting. What is this patient most likely experiencing?

  • A) An allergic reaction
  • B) An idiosyncratic drug effect on the bone marrow
  • C) Iatrogenic disease of the skin
  • D) Drug toxicity of the liver

Explanation

Correct Answer: D) Drug toxicity of the liver
Explanation:
The symptoms described—jaundice, dark urine, light-colored stools, nausea, vomiting, and malaise—are classic signs of liver dysfunction, often due to hepatotoxicity or drug-induced liver injury. Many medications can damage liver cells, leading to impaired bile excretion and systemic symptoms.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) An allergic reaction:
Usually presents with rash, itching, hives, swelling, or respiratory issues—not liver-related symptoms like jaundice.
B) An idiosyncratic drug effect on the bone marrow:
Would more likely cause blood-related issues such as anemia, infection, or bleeding—not liver-specific signs.
C) Iatrogenic disease of the skin:
Refers to a skin condition caused by medical treatment, not systemic liver symptoms like jaundice or digestive distress.
9.

A patient receives a drug that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse administering this medication will expect to do what?

  • A) Monitor plasma drug levels
  • B) Administer this medication intravenously
  • C) Administer the drug at intervals longer than the drug half-life
  • D) Teach the patient that maximum drug effects will occur within a short period

Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Monitor plasma drug levels
Explanation:
Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range have a small margin between therapeutic and toxic doses. Because of this, the nurse must monitor plasma drug levels closely to ensure the drug concentration stays within the safe and effective range. This helps prevent toxicity or subtherapeutic effects.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Administer this medication intravenously:
Route of administration depends on the drug, not its therapeutic range. Narrow-range drugs can be oral, IV, or other forms.
C) Administer the drug at intervals longer than the drug half-life:
This could lead to subtherapeutic levels. Dosing is usually more frequent to maintain steady levels.
D) Teach the patient that maximum drug effects will occur within a short period:
The timing of effects varies with each drug and is not directly related to the therapeutic range.
10.

A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by:

  • A) Synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.
  • B) Decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects.
  • C) Desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.
  • D) Antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites.

Explanation

Correct Answer: C) Desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.
Explanation:
When a medication is used over a prolonged period, the body can become tolerant to it. This often happens because the drug’s target receptors become desensitized, meaning they no longer respond as effectively to stimulation. As a result, the drug loses its effectiveness even though the dose remains the same. This phenomenon is a common reason why long-term drug regimens may stop working.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication:
This would likely increase sensitivity, not reduce it, and is more common with upregulation after blocking agents are used.
B) Decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects:
Selectivity refers to how specific a drug is to certain receptors, not how effective it is. This doesn't explain reduced response.
D) Antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites:
The body does not normally produce antagonists against medications. This is not a recognized physiological mechanism of tolerance.

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