ATI Leadership Exam
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Free ATI Leadership Exam Questions
A nurse is teaching an assistive personnel (AP) about caring for a client who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. Which of the following statements by the AP indicates an understanding of the teaching
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If I cannot detect the client's pulse, I will have another AP verify this with me.
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If the client does not have a pulse, I will call for the rapid response team
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I will initiate CPR until a nurse arrives if I cannot detect the client's pulse
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I will call for the client's nurse to come to the room if I cannot detect the client's pulse
Explanation
Correct answer D: I will call for the client's nurse to come to the room if I cannot detect the client's pulse.
Explanation of the correct answer:
This statement demonstrates an understanding of the responsibilities and scope of practice for an assistive personnel (AP) in the context of a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. If an AP is unable to detect a client's pulse, they should immediately notify the nurse. The nurse is responsible for determining the next steps in line with the client's wishes as stated in the DNR order. The AP should not take actions like initiating CPR or calling for a rapid response team without a nurse's direction when a DNR is in place.
Explanation of why the other options are incorrect:
A. If I cannot detect the client's pulse, I will have another AP verify this with me.
While it may be helpful to verify findings in some situations, in the case of a client with a DNR order, the AP should not be verifying or performing actions such as checking the pulse independently. Instead, they should notify the nurse immediately if they are unsure or cannot detect the pulse. Verification by another AP does not address the primary responsibility of notifying a nurse in the presence of a DNR order.
B. If the client does not have a pulse, I will call for the rapid response team.
Calling the rapid response team is not appropriate when a DNR order is in place. A DNR order means that no resuscitation efforts, including calling a rapid response team, should be initiated if the client experiences cardiac arrest. The proper action is to notify the nurse so that they can take appropriate steps according to the DNR order.
C. I will initiate CPR until a nurse arrives if I cannot detect the client's pulse.
Initiating CPR is contraindicated if the client has a DNR order. A DNR order explicitly instructs healthcare providers not to initiate resuscitation efforts, including CPR, if the client stops breathing or their heart stops beating. The AP should not attempt to perform CPR, as this would violate the client's wishes as documented in the DNR order.
Summary:
The correct understanding is that the AP should call the nurse if they cannot detect the client's pulse in the presence of a DNR order. The nurse will then take the appropriate steps to follow the DNR guidelines. The other options involve actions that are not consistent with the DNR order and could lead to inappropriate interventions.
A nurse us teaching a newly licensed nurse about incident reports. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching
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I should place a copy of an incident report in the client's medical record.
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I should document the completion of an incident report in the client's medical record
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I should complete an incident report for an unexpected client occurrence
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I should ask the risk manager to complete the incident reports
Explanation
Correct answer C: I should complete an incident report for an unexpected client occurrence.
Explanation of the correct answer:
C. I should complete an incident report for an unexpected client occurrence.
An incident report is used to document any unexpected or unusual occurrences involving a client, such as falls, medication errors, or equipment malfunction. This documentation is essential for ensuring that the situation is formally reviewed to improve patient safety and prevent similar incidents in the future. It is not intended to be part of the client’s medical record but rather a separate document used for internal review.
Explanation of why the other options are incorrect:
A. I should place a copy of an incident report in the client's medical record.
Incident reports should not be placed in the client's medical record. These reports are confidential and are part of the institution's internal quality assurance process, not the patient's permanent medical record. Including an incident report in the medical record could create legal risks and may be used as evidence in court.
B. I should document the completion of an incident report in the client's medical record.
Incident reports should not be mentioned in the client’s medical record. The medical record should contain the details of the client’s care, while the incident report is a separate document that details the event itself. Documentation in the client’s record should focus on clinical care and treatment, not internal quality assessments like incident reports.
D. I should ask the risk manager to complete the incident reports.
The responsibility for completing incident reports lies with the healthcare provider who witnesses or is involved in the incident, not with the risk manager. While the risk manager may be involved in reviewing the report or handling any follow-up actions, they do not complete the report itself.
Summary:
The correct action for a nurse is to complete an incident report following an unexpected client occurrence to document the event for internal review and quality improvement. It is crucial to understand that incident reports are not part of the client’s medical record and should be kept separate.
A nurse is serving on a committee that is considering the creation of a policy that will allow nurses to insert peripherally inserted central catheters in the intensive care unit. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult in planning for this policy
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National League for Nursing (NLN)
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American Academy of Nursing (AAN)
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Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
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State Nurse Practice Act (NPA)
Explanation
Correct Answer D: State Nurse Practice Act (NPA)
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
D. State Nurse Practice Act (NPA)
The State Nurse Practice Act (NPA) is the most appropriate resource when planning a policy that affects the scope of practice for nurses. Each state's NPA outlines the legal scope of practice for registered nurses, including what nursing procedures are permissible. In this case, the policy regarding peripherally inserted central catheters (PICC) insertion would fall under the scope of practice for nurses. The NPA will help determine if the procedure is within the nurse’s authorized responsibilities or if additional training, certification, or policy development is required. The nurse should review the NPA to ensure that any policy created is in compliance with state regulations.
Explanation of Incorrect Answers:
A. National League for Nursing (NLN)
The NLN focuses on advancing nursing education and ensuring that nursing programs meet accreditation standards. Although the NLN plays a key role in nursing education, it does not dictate the scope of practice or provide the legal framework for clinical nursing procedures. Therefore, it is not the best resource for policy development regarding clinical practices like PICC insertion.
B. American Academy of Nursing (AAN)
The American Academy of Nursing (AAN) is an organization focused on the advancement of the nursing profession, primarily through policy advocacy and research. While the AAN can influence healthcare policies at a national level, it does not provide specific guidance on what individual nurses can or cannot do in terms of clinical procedures. This makes it less relevant than the State Nurse Practice Act in this context.
C. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
The AHRQ is a government agency focused on improving the quality of healthcare through research and the dissemination of evidence-based practices. While the AHRQ can provide useful evidence on the best practices for procedures like PICC insertion, it does not have the authority to dictate the legal scope of nursing practice. This is the responsibility of the State Nurse Practice Act.
Summary:
To develop a policy allowing nurses to insert peripherally inserted central catheters (PICC), the State Nurse Practice Act (NPA) should be consulted, as it defines the legal scope of nursing practice in the state. Other resources, such as the NLN, AAN, and AHRQ, may offer valuable insights on education, advocacy, or evidence-based practices but do not govern the legal scope of nursing procedures.
A charge nurse observes that a staff nurse's behavior has changed over the past few weeks. Which of the following behaviors should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the staff nurse is working while impaired
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Refuses to work overtime shifts.
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Isolates herself from other staff members.
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Skips lunch break to complete charting.
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Volunteers to help other nurses with their assignments.
Explanation
Correct Answe B: Isolates herself from other staff members.
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
B. Isolates herself from other staff members.
Social withdrawal or isolation from colleagues can be a significant warning sign of a nurse working while impaired. Behavioral changes such as becoming more withdrawn, irritable, or distant may indicate the nurse is struggling with substance use or other issues that are affecting their ability to interact and function in a team environment. If this is observed, the charge nurse should investigate further and offer appropriate support, ensuring that the nurse’s safety, as well as the safety of their patients, is not compromised.
Explanation of Incorrect Answers:
A. Refuses to work overtime shifts.
While refusing overtime shifts could indicate various personal reasons, such as fatigue, stress, or scheduling preferences, it is not necessarily a sign of impairment. Many nurses may choose not to work overtime due to personal or health concerns, but this alone does not indicate impairment.
C. Skips lunch break to complete charting.
Skipping breaks to complete tasks such as charting can be a sign of stress or time management issues, but it is not necessarily indicative of impairment. Some nurses may skip breaks because they feel overwhelmed by their workload or prefer to stay busy, but this behavior is not a direct indicator of impairment.
D. Volunteers to help other nurses with their assignments.
Volunteering to assist others can often be seen as a positive, team-oriented behavior. It does not necessarily suggest impairment, as it could simply reflect the nurse’s willingness to collaborate and help their colleagues. However, if the volunteer behavior becomes excessive, forced, or out of character, it may require further observation.
Summary:
The most significant indicator of a staff nurse working while impaired is social isolation (B). Withdrawal from colleagues and a lack of interaction can signal emotional or psychological distress related to impairment. Other behaviors, such as refusing overtime or skipping breaks, are not conclusive signs of impairment on their own.
A nurse is planning discharge care for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and has difficulty buttoning clothing. Which of the following referrals should the nurse recommend for the client
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Pain management clinic
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Physical therapy
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Arthritis support group
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Occupational therapy
Explanation
Correct answer D: Occupational therapy
Explanation of the correct answer:
D. Occupational therapy
Occupational therapy focuses on helping clients improve their ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs), such as dressing, grooming, and cooking. For a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has difficulty buttoning clothing, a referral to occupational therapy is appropriate. The occupational therapist can assess the client’s functional abilities and provide adaptive strategies or devices to help with dressing, including using button hooks or teaching new techniques to facilitate the process.
Explanation of why the other options are incorrect:
A. Pain management clinic
While a pain management clinic could help the client manage the discomfort associated with rheumatoid arthritis, it is not the best referral for addressing the specific difficulty with buttoning clothing. This referral would focus more on managing the pain rather than improving the client’s functional abilities related to daily activities.
B. Physical therapy
Physical therapy is focused on improving strength, mobility, and physical function. While important for managing rheumatoid arthritis, physical therapy is not the most appropriate intervention for addressing difficulties with activities of daily living (ADLs) like buttoning clothing. Occupational therapy is the more suitable choice for this type of functional impairment.
C. Arthritis support group
An arthritis support group could provide emotional support and help the client connect with others facing similar challenges, but it would not directly address the functional issues related to the client’s difficulty with buttoning clothing. An occupational therapy referral would be more practical in this scenario.
Summary:
For a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has difficulty buttoning clothing, the most appropriate referral is to occupational therapy (Option D). Occupational therapy will focus on helping the client with adaptive strategies and devices to improve their ability to perform activities of daily living.
A charge nurse is conducting an in-service with staff members about infection control precautions. The nurse should instruct the staff that which of the following clients requires droplet precautions
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A client who has shigella.
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A client who has measles.
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A client who has toxic shock syndrome
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A client who has pertussis.
Explanation
Correct answer D: A client who has pertussis.
Explanation of the correct answer:
D. A client who has pertussis.
Pertussis (also known as whooping cough) is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted via respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Therefore, droplet precautions are required. These precautions include wearing a mask when within 3 feet of the patient, placing the patient in a private room, and using appropriate hand hygiene. The goal is to prevent transmission of large-particle droplets that do not remain suspended in the air for long.
Explanation of incorrect options:
A. A client who has shigella.
Shigella is a bacterial infection transmitted through the fecal-oral route, commonly through contaminated food or water. The appropriate precautions are contact precautions, not droplet. This involves wearing gloves and a gown when in contact with the patient or their environment, especially where fecal contamination is possible.
B. A client who has measles.
Measles requires airborne precautions, not droplet. Measles is caused by a virus that is transmitted via airborne particles that can remain suspended in the air for long periods. Patients with measles should be placed in a negative-pressure room, and caregivers must wear an N95 respirator mask.
C. A client who has toxic shock syndrome.
Toxic shock syndrome is not typically considered contagious and does not require transmission-based precautions like droplet, airborne, or contact precautions. Standard precautions are sufficient unless another condition is present that warrants additional measures.
Summary:
Droplet precautions are required for infections like pertussis (Option D), which spread through respiratory droplets. The other conditions listed require either contact precautions, airborne precautions, or standard precautions.
A nurse on a maternal newborn unit has delegated tasks to an assistive personnel (AP) to complete when rounding on the unit. Which of the following information should the AP report to the nurse immediately?
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A postpartum client requests an analgesic for incisional pain.
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A parent needs teaching about caring for their newborn's circumcision.
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A newborn has an axillary temperature of 36.3° C (97.4° F)
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A newborn has not voided or stooled since birth 24 hr ago.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
D. A newborn has not voided or stooled since birth 24 hr ago.
Explanation:
A newborn who has not voided or stooled within 24 hours of birth requires immediate assessment because this can indicate renal or gastrointestinal dysfunction. Normal newborns should pass urine and meconium within the first 24 hours. The nurse must notify the provider promptly to initiate evaluation and intervention. This is a critical finding, as it can signify underlying anatomical or physiological issues needing urgent attention.
A home health nurse is assessing a home environment during an initial visit to a client who has a history of falls. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as increasing the client’s risk for falls? (Select all that apply.)
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A wheeled office chair at the client’s computer desk
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A throw rug covering some cracked vinyl flooring in the kitchen
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Two-wheeled walker used to assist the client with ambulation
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A raised vinyl seat on the toilet in the bathroom
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A folding chair without armrests
Explanation
Correct Answers:
A. A wheeled office chair at the client’s computer desk
B. A throw rug covering some cracked vinyl flooring in the kitchen
C. Two-wheeled walker used to assist the client with ambulation
E. A folding chair without armrests
Explanation:
A. A wheeled office chair at the client’s computer desk
Wheeled chairs are unstable and can roll unexpectedly, increasing the risk of the client losing balance and falling.
B. A throw rug covering some cracked vinyl flooring in the kitchen
Loose rugs and uneven flooring create tripping hazards, which are common causes of home falls.
C. Two-wheeled walker used to assist the client with ambulation
A two-wheeled walker provides less stability than a standard four-legged walker, increasing the risk of imbalance and falls.
E. A folding chair without armrests
Folding chairs are less stable, and lack of armrests makes it difficult for the client to safely sit or rise, increasing fall risk.
An RN delegates the task of obtaining the blood pressure of a client who is 2 hr postoperative following a cholecystectomy to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). The LPN reports a blood pressure that is significantly higher than the client's previous reading. Which of the following actions should the RN take first
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Recheck the client's blood pressure.
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Treat the client's blood pressure with a prescribed antihypertensive.
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Ask the LPN to review the technique for obtaining blood pressure.
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Review the client's medical record for other episodes of elevated blood pressure.
Explanation
Correct answer A: Recheck the client's blood pressure.
Explanation of the correct answer: A. Recheck the client's blood pressure.
The RN's first priority should be to confirm the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. It is important to recheck the blood pressure to ensure that the elevated reading was not due to an error in technique, equipment, or other transient factors. Rechecking provides the opportunity to verify whether the blood pressure is truly elevated, which will guide further interventions.
Explanation of why the other options are incorrect:
B. Treat the client's blood pressure with a prescribed antihypertensive.
Treating the elevated blood pressure with medication is not appropriate without first confirming the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement. Administering medication based on a potentially inaccurate reading could lead to unnecessary or harmful treatment. The RN must first verify the reading before deciding on any medical interventions.
C. Ask the LPN to review the technique for obtaining blood pressure.
While it is important to ensure correct technique in obtaining vital signs, the first step is to recheck the blood pressure to confirm that the reading is accurate. If the recheck shows an elevated reading, the RN can then review the technique with the LPN as needed, but confirming the reading should be the RN's first action.
D. Review the client's medical record for other episodes of elevated blood pressure.
While reviewing the client’s medical record may provide useful information about trends in blood pressure, the first priority is to verify the current blood pressure reading. Only after confirming the current reading should the RN consider the client’s medical history and decide on further actions.
Summary:
The RN should first recheck the client's blood pressure to confirm the accuracy of the elevated reading. This step ensures that any decisions made regarding treatment or further action are based on accurate and reliable information. Treating elevated blood pressure or reviewing the LPN’s technique should occur after confirming the initial reading.
A nurse manager is reviewing the nursing code of ethics with the staff nurses. Which of the following statements by a staff nurse indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
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"I administer pain medication to my clients even if they have a history of narcotic addiction."
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"I can delegate the removal of an N catheter to an LPN on the unit."
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"The family of a newly admitted client recently treated me to lunch in the hospital cafeteria."
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"I will attend continuing education classes for professional growth."
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"I have the assistive personnel double-check packed PRN medications when other nurses administer them."
Explanation
Correct Answers:
A. "I administer pain medication to my clients even if they have a history of narcotic addiction."
D. "I will attend continuing education classes for professional growth."
Explanation:
A. "I administer pain medication to my clients even if they have a history of narcotic addiction."
The nursing code of ethics emphasizes nonjudgmental care and advocacy for clients’ needs, including effective pain management. Nurses must provide appropriate pain relief regardless of a client’s history of substance use, ensuring safe and ethical care.
D. "I will attend continuing education classes for professional growth."
The code of ethics requires nurses to maintain competence and professional development. Continuing education ensures that nurses provide safe, evidence-based care and uphold ethical and professional standards.
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