HESI RN Adult Health (D444)
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Free HESI RN Adult Health (D444) Questions
The nurse initiates neurologic checks for a client who is at risk for neurologic compromise. Which manifestation typically provides the first indication of altered neurologic function
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Change in level of consciousness
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Increasing muscular weakness
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Changes in pupil size bilaterally
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Progressive nuchal rigidity
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Change in level of consciousness
Explanation:
A change in level of consciousness (LOC) is usually the earliest and most sensitive indicator of altered neurologic status. Subtle changes—such as restlessness, confusion, irritability, or decreased responsiveness—often occur before other signs like motor weakness, pupillary changes, or abnormal reflexes. Monitoring LOC closely allows for early detection of deterioration and timely intervention to prevent further neurologic damage.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Increasing muscular weakness
This can occur with neurologic compromise but generally appears after changes in LOC.
C. Changes in pupil size bilaterally
Pupillary changes usually appear later and often indicate more advanced intracranial pressure changes or brainstem involvement.
D. Progressive nuchal rigidity
Neck stiffness is associated with meningeal irritation, such as meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage, and is not an early or general sign of neurologic compromise.
The nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease who is experiencing episodes of confusion. Which finding alerts the nurse that the client may be experiencing a complication?
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Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg.
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Cervical spine stiffness.
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Dark yellow urine
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Excessive perspiration
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Cervical spine stiffness
Explanation
Cervical spine stiffness, when paired with confusion, is a red-flag neurological symptom that can indicate meningeal irritation. In a client with diabetes, this could suggest central nervous system infection such as meningitis, which requires immediate recognition and urgent intervention. Confusion alone can have many causes, but when combined with neck stiffness, it signals a serious complication beyond metabolic issues, warranting rapid evaluation and treatment.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg
This is a normal reading for an adult and does not indicate a complication. It would not explain the episodes of confusion.
C. Dark yellow urine
This finding may indicate mild dehydration but is not a direct cause of acute confusion and does not represent a serious complication in this scenario.
D. Excessive perspiration
While sweating can indicate hypoglycemia in diabetes, it is not present in this option’s scenario. Cervical spine stiffness carries a higher risk for a life-threatening complication compared to perspiration alone.
The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after a school bus accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
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A 12-year-old reporting neck, arm, and lower back discomfort.
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An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia
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A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all extremities
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An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
D. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting
Explanation
Projectile vomiting following a head injury is a red flag for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). This can rapidly become life-threatening if not addressed immediately. The child requires urgent intervention to prevent brain herniation or further neurologic deterioration.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. A 12-year-old reporting neck, arm, and lower back discomfort
This child may have a musculoskeletal injury or possible spinal involvement, which requires evaluation, but the presentation is stable and not immediately life-threatening compared to signs of increased ICP.
B. An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia
The splint suggests stabilization is already in place. This is a serious but not emergent condition compared to neurologic compromise.
C. A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all extremities
Although painful and requiring wound care, superficial lacerations are not immediately life-threatening.
The nurse is planning care for a pt with CKD who is a resident at a long term care facility. The pt is anuric and has hemodialysis 3x per week. Which intervention should the nurse include in the pt's plan of care
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Plan meals that include dark leafy vegetables
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Use adult briefs to prevent skin breakdown
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Monitor for signs of bleeding
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Record strict urinary output
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
Explanation:
Clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who are on hemodialysis have an increased risk of bleeding due to uremia-induced platelet dysfunction and the use of anticoagulants during dialysis. Monitoring for signs such as bruising, petechiae, prolonged bleeding from needle sites, or gastrointestinal bleeding is a critical safety intervention. Early recognition of bleeding complications helps prevent severe blood loss and related morbidity.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Plan meals that include dark leafy vegetables:
Dark leafy vegetables are high in potassium, which can be dangerous for CKD patients because their kidneys cannot effectively excrete excess potassium, increasing the risk of life-threatening hyperkalemia. Potassium-rich foods must be restricted, not encouraged.
B. Use adult briefs to prevent skin breakdown:
This patient is anuric (no urine production), so using adult briefs is unnecessary and could actually promote skin irritation rather than prevent breakdown. Skin protection measures should be individualized and not automatically involve briefs.
D. Record strict urinary output:
Since the patient is anuric, urinary output measurement is not relevant. Instead, fluid management and monitoring for fluid overload (weight gain, edema, shortness of breath) are more appropriate for care planning.
An older client with a history of heart failure and admitted to the medical unit after falling at home and has become increasingly confused. The client's spouse is designated as the client's power of attorney.
When reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) communication, which information should the nurse provide first?
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Currently prescribed medications
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Fall at home as reason for admission.
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Client's healthcare power of attorney.
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Increasing confusion of the client.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
D. Increasing confusion of the client
Explanation
In SBAR communication, the Situation comes first — the most urgent, immediate concern about the client’s condition. In this case, the client’s increasing confusion is the priority to report first, since it represents an acute change in mental status that may indicate worsening heart failure, hypoxia, infection, or medication side effects. Clear, concise communication of the urgent problem ensures rapid provider attention.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Currently prescribed medications
Medication history belongs in the Background portion of SBAR, not the opening statement.
B. Fall at home as reason for admission
The fall is part of the Background, providing context, but it is not the immediate issue to address first.
C. Client's healthcare power of attorney
This is important information for planning care but is not urgent clinical data. It belongs in Background or when discussing legal/decision-making matters.
The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the start of the procedure?
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Drank a glass of water in the past 2 hours.
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Reports left chest wall pain prior to admission
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Experiences facial swelling after eating crab.
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Verbalizes a fear of being in a confined space
Explanation
Correct Answer:
C. Experiences facial swelling after eating crab
Explanation
Facial swelling after eating crab suggests a possible shellfish allergy. This is critically important before angioplasty because the contrast dye used in cardiac catheterization is iodine-based and may trigger severe allergic reactions in clients with shellfish or iodine allergies. Exploring this report ensures appropriate premedication or an alternative diagnostic approach is used to prevent anaphylaxis.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Drank a glass of water in the past 2 hours
Drinking a small amount of water before a procedure is generally not a major concern. Fasting status is important, but this is not the most urgent risk compared to an allergy to contrast dye.
B. Reports left chest wall pain prior to admission
Chest pain is significant, but the procedure is being performed to address cardiac issues. Previous pain history does not delay the angioplasty preparation as much as a potential life-threatening allergic reaction would.
D. Verbalizes a fear of being in a confined space
Claustrophobia should be acknowledged and managed with reassurance or medication if necessary, but it does not present the same immediate, life-threatening risk as an allergy to contrast dye.
A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client's respiratory acidosis
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Hyperventilation is eliminating carbon dioxide rapidly
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Blood oxygen levels are stimulating the respiratory rate
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High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood
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Carbon dioxide is converted in the kidneys for elimination
Explanation
Correct Answer C. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood
Explanation:
Respiratory acidosis occurs when the lungs cannot adequately remove carbon dioxide (CO₂), leading to hypercapnia. CO₂ combines with water to form carbonic acid, lowering blood pH. This is commonly caused by hypoventilation from conditions like COPD, severe asthma, or respiratory muscle weakness. The accumulation of CO₂ in the blood is the primary mechanism behind respiratory acidosis.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Hyperventilation is eliminating carbon dioxide rapidly:
This describes respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. Rapid CO₂ elimination increases blood pH, which is the opposite of the problem in respiratory acidosis.
B. Blood oxygen levels are stimulating the respiratory rate:
While hypoxemia can stimulate breathing, respiratory acidosis is primarily related to CO₂ retention, not oxygen levels directly. Low oxygen may be present, but it is not the cause of acidosis.
D. Carbon dioxide is converted in the kidneys for elimination:
The kidneys do not convert CO₂ for elimination. They compensate for acidosis by retaining bicarbonate and excreting hydrogen ions, but this is a secondary response, not the primary pathophysiological cause.
One hour after arriving on the postoperative unit, a woman who received spinal anesthesia 5 hours ago is complaining of severe abdominal incisional pain. Her vital signs are: temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 110 beats/minute, respiratory rate 30 breaths/minute and blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. The client's skin is pale, and the surgical dressing is dry and intact. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
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Provide pillow for splinting
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Assess the IV site for patency.
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Place in a high Fowler position.
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Administer an IV analgesic
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None
Explanation
Correct Answer:
D. Administer an IV analgesic
Explanation
The client is showing classic signs of severe, uncontrolled postoperative pain: tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, pallor, and verbal complaint of intense abdominal pain. The most important nursing intervention is to administer an IV analgesic as prescribed to manage pain effectively. Untreated acute pain can lead to complications such as increased cardiac workload, impaired ventilation, and delayed healing. Because the client has a functioning IV (as evidenced by IV fluids or medications already being administered postoperatively), the priority is to relieve pain immediately.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Provide pillow for splinting
This may offer minor comfort but is insufficient for severe pain control.
B. Assess the IV site for patency
IV patency is a prerequisite, but in the context of immediate postoperative care, IV access is already assumed functional. The priority is to deliver analgesia, not reassess IV patency.
C. Place in a high Fowler position
Positioning may improve comfort but does not address the urgent need for pain relief.
E. None
Intervention is absolutely required; leaving the client untreated would worsen distress and risk complications.
The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?
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A salad with three kinds of lettuce and fruit.
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Vegetable soup, crackers, and milk.
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A peanut butter sandwich with soda and cookies.
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A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
Explanation
Correct Answer:
D. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
Explanation
Protein is essential for wound healing as it promotes collagen formation, tissue repair, and immune support. Tuna fish is a high-quality protein source that makes option D the best choice. While chips and ice cream are not nutrient-dense, the inclusion of tuna provides a sufficient protein contribution to aid recovery.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. A salad with three kinds of lettuce and fruit
This option is rich in vitamins and fiber but provides very little protein, making it inadequate for promoting wound healing.
B. Vegetable soup, crackers, and milk
While milk provides some protein, the overall meal is still too low in protein to support optimal wound healing compared to tuna fish.
C. A peanut butter sandwich with soda and cookies
Peanut butter contains some protein, but this meal is dominated by refined carbohydrates and sugar, making it insufficient to meet increased protein needs.
The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
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New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
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Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
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Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
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More than half at risk clients were diagnosed early in the disease process
Explanation
Correct Answer:
C. Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests
Explanation
Primary prevention focuses on preventing disease before it occurs through education, risk-reduction strategies, and health promotion. Improved client knowledge of risk factors and preventive practices—demonstrated by higher test scores—shows that the program successfully reduced the likelihood of new sexually transmitted disease (STD) cases.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented
This is part of secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection of disease through screening.
B. Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
This reflects tertiary prevention, which addresses limiting disability and restoring function after disease complications occur.
D. More than half at risk clients were diagnosed early in the disease process
Early diagnosis is also secondary prevention, not primary prevention. The goal of primary prevention is to stop infection before it develops.
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The guide contains over 300 exam-aligned practice questions, designed to help students prepare for the HESI RN D444 Adult Health exam.
Topics include cardiovascular care, respiratory care, renal health, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal health, patient assessments, pharmacology, and nursing interventions.
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