HESI RN Adult Health (D444)

HESI RN Adult Health  (D444)

The WGU  HESI RN D444 Adult Health Exam Practice Questions Guide at Ulosca is a comprehensive resource designed to enhance students' understanding of adult health nursing concepts.
It includes over 300 exam-aligned practice questions with detailed rationales to clarify correct answers. The guide aligns with current curriculum standards, offering case studies, real-life scenarios, and targeted reviews to strengthen knowledge of patient assessments, diagnostic testing, treatment interventions, and pharmacology.
Subscription access ensures continuous updates and support, empowering students to master essential skills for the HESI RN D444 Adult Health exam.

 

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Free HESI RN Adult Health (D444) Questions

1.

A client who delivered vaginally 2 days ago states that she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control. What information should the nurse share with her?

  • The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse

  • The most effective form of contraception is a diaphragm

  • Vaseline lubricant can be used when inserting the diaphragm

  • The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth

Explanation

After vaginal delivery, the size and shape of the vagina and cervix may change. Because the diaphragm must fit snugly over the cervix to be effective, it requires refitting after childbirth. Using the old diaphragm could result in poor placement, reducing contraceptive effectiveness and increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy. Nurses must reinforce this teaching to ensure safe and effective contraception after delivery.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse

This is incorrect. A diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse to maintain effectiveness. If placed too early, the spermicide may lose potency.

B. The most effective form of contraception is a diaphragm

This is inaccurate. Diaphragms are moderately effective but less reliable than long-acting reversible contraception (IUDs, implants) or consistent hormonal methods.

C. Vaseline lubricant can be used when inserting the diaphragm

This is unsafe. Petroleum-based products like Vaseline can weaken the diaphragm’s rubber, increasing the risk of breakage. Only water-based lubricants or spermicidal jelly should be used.


2.

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a client with flu-like symptoms who has been placed on droplet precautions. The UAP requests a change in assignment, stating she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

  • Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.

  • Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to obtain vital signs, and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.

  • Instruct the UAP that a standard face mask is sufficient to be able to provide care for the assigned client.

  • Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Instruct the UAP that a standard face mask is sufficient to be able to provide care for the assigned client

Explanation

Droplet precautions, such as those used for influenza, require a standard surgical mask, not a particulate filter mask (N95 respirator). An N95 respirator is required for airborne precautions (e.g., tuberculosis, measles, varicella). Since the client has flu-like symptoms and is on droplet precautions, a standard face mask provides adequate protection. The UAP can safely provide care with droplet-appropriate PPE.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client

This is unnecessary because droplet precautions do not require an N95 respirator.

B. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to obtain vital signs, and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care

This is misleading because a particulate filter mask is not needed for droplet precautions. The standard mask is sufficient for all care.

D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks

This implies that only staff with respirators can provide care, which is incorrect. Droplet precautions do not require particulate filter masks.


3.

Which finding may indicate that a patient is experiencing adverse effects to a corticosteroid prescribed after a kidney transplant

  •  Postural hypotension

  • Recurrent tachycardia

  • Knee and hip joint pain

  • Hypoglycemia

Explanation

Correct Answer C. Knee and hip joint pain

Explanation:

Long-term corticosteroid use after a kidney transplant can lead to avascular necrosis (osteonecrosis) of large joints such as the knees and hips. This condition results from compromised blood flow to bone tissue, causing pain and potential joint collapse. Early recognition of new or worsening joint pain is important so treatment can be initiated promptly to preserve joint function and mobility.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Postural hypotension


This is more commonly associated with adrenal insufficiency or dehydration, not with the adverse effects of corticosteroid therapy in transplant patients.

B. Recurrent tachycardia

Tachycardia may result from infection, anemia, or fluid imbalance, but it is not a typical adverse effect of corticosteroid use.

D. Hypoglycemia

Corticosteroids tend to raise blood glucose levels, leading to hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, especially in transplant patients who require high doses.


4.

A construction worker sustains a puncture wound from a rusty nail and the last immunization for tetanus is unknown. The primary health care provider prescribes tetanus immune globulin. Which type of protection does this immunization offer

  • Lifelong passive immunity

  • Long-lasting active protection

  • Stimulation of antibody production

  • Immediate passive short-term immunity

Explanation

Correct Answer D. Immediate passive short-term immunity

Explanation:

Tetanus immune globulin provides passive immunity by supplying ready-made antibodies against the tetanus toxin. This protection is immediate but short-term, lasting only a few weeks to months, because the body is not producing its own antibodies. It is used when rapid protection is needed, such as after a high-risk injury in someone with unknown or incomplete immunization history.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Lifelong passive immunity

Passive immunity is always temporary; antibodies will degrade over time. It never provides lifelong protection.

B. Long-lasting active protection

Active protection occurs when the body produces its own antibodies after vaccination or illness, which tetanus immune globulin does not stimulate.

C. Stimulation of antibody production

This describes active immunity from a tetanus toxoid vaccine, not immune globulin. Immune globulin only transfers existing antibodies; it does not trigger production of new ones.


5.

A client who recently received a prescription for ramelteon to treat sleep deprivation reports experiencing severe side effects since taking the drug. Which side effect should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

  • Dizziness reported after initial dose

  • A change in the sleep-wake cycle

  • Mild sedation

  • Somnambulism

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. Somnambulism

Explanation

Ramelteon is a melatonin receptor agonist used for insomnia related to sleep-onset difficulties. Common side effects include mild sedation, dizziness, or changes in sleep patterns. However, somnambulism (sleepwalking) is a severe adverse effect that poses safety risks to the client and requires prompt reporting to the healthcare provider. Monitoring and intervention are necessary because of the potential for injury during episodes of sleepwalking.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. Dizziness reported after initial dose

Dizziness is a common, usually mild, side effect of ramelteon. It does not require immediate reporting unless it worsens or leads to falls.

B. A change in the sleep-wake cycle

This is expected, as ramelteon alters circadian rhythm regulation to promote sleep. It is a therapeutic effect rather than a dangerous side effect.

C. Mild sedation

Sedation is the desired pharmacologic action of ramelteon, not a complication. It indicates the medication is working as intended.


6.

Which action describes the process of artificial active immunity

  • Antibodies are passed from one person to another.

  • Antibodies against an antigen are produced naturally in the body.

  • Antibodies are made after an antigen is injected into the body.

  • Antibodies produced by one body or animal are transferred to another body or animal.

Explanation

Correct Answer C. Antibodies are made after an antigen is injected into the body.

Explanation of Correct Answer:

Artificial active immunity occurs when an antigen—such as a weakened, killed, or inactivated microorganism—is deliberately introduced into the body through immunization. The immune system recognizes the antigen as foreign and responds by producing antibodies and memory cells. This process trains the immune system to recognize and fight the pathogen in the future, providing long-term protection.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Antibodies are passed from one person to another

This describes passive immunity, not active immunity. In passive immunity, the recipient gains antibodies without producing them, such as through breast milk or antibody injections.

B. Antibodies against an antigen are produced naturally in the body

This refers to natural active immunity, which occurs after direct exposure to a pathogen (e.g., getting sick from measles), not through deliberate injection.

D. Antibodies produced by one body or animal are transferred to another body or animal

This describes artificial passive immunity, such as giving antitoxins or immune globulin. The recipient gains immediate but temporary protection without producing their own antibodies.


7.

The nurse is caring for a client with the sexually transmitted infection (STI) genital herpes. The client reports having sex with multiple partners. Which response should the nurse provide?

  • Remain non-judgmental and assure the client of confidentiality.

  • Provide counseling that most contraceptives protect against infection.

  • Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse

  • Inform the client that complications will not result from reinfection

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Remain non-judgmental and assure the client of confidentiality

Explanation

When discussing sexually transmitted infections, the nurse’s priority is to establish trust and provide a safe environment for honest communication. Remaining non-judgmental and assuring confidentiality encourages the client to share sensitive information openly, which is essential for proper counseling, education, and treatment planning. This therapeutic approach promotes effective nurse-client communication and adherence to care.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

B. Provide counseling that most contraceptives protect against infection

This is inaccurate. While condoms can reduce transmission of some STIs, many contraceptives (like oral pills, IUDs, or implants) do not protect against infections. Providing false information could harm the client.

C. Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse

Not all STIs are exclusively spread by intercourse; some can spread through blood (HIV, hepatitis B), perinatal transmission, or skin-to-skin contact (genital herpes, HPV). This statement is misleading.

D. Inform the client that complications will not result from reinfection

This is incorrect. Reinfection or repeated outbreaks of herpes can increase complications, such as more severe lesions, increased transmission risk, and neonatal herpes if the client becomes pregnant.


8.

Which characteristics are observed in clients who have cocaine addiction

  • Anxiety

  • Palpitations

  • Weight loss

  • Sedentary habits

  • Difficulties with speech

Explanation

Correct Answers:

A. Anxiety

B. Palpitations

C. Weight loss


Explanation of Correct Answers:

A. Anxiety

Cocaine stimulates the central nervous system, increasing dopamine levels and leading to heightened alertness and energy. Overstimulation can produce anxiety, restlessness, and irritability, which are common in individuals with cocaine addiction.

B. Palpitations

Because cocaine causes cardiovascular stimulation by increasing heart rate and blood pressure, palpitations are a frequent symptom. The drug's vasoconstrictive effects can also increase the risk of arrhythmias and myocardial infarction.

C. Weight loss

Cocaine suppresses appetite by affecting the hypothalamus, leading to decreased food intake and eventual weight loss. Chronic users often show signs of malnutrition along with noticeable weight reduction.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

D. Sedentary habits

Cocaine use generally increases energy and activity levels rather than causing sedentary behavior. Users may display hyperactivity, restlessness, or repetitive movements instead of inactivity.

E. Difficulties with speech

Speech difficulties are not a hallmark symptom of cocaine use. While extreme intoxication or neurological damage from long-term use can impair coordination, typical effects involve rapid, pressured speech rather than speech difficulty.


9.

A client who is receiving an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension calls the clinic and reports the recent onset of a cough to the nurse. Which action should the nurse implement

  • Advise the client to come to the clinic immediately for further assessment.

  • Instruct the client to discontinue use of the drug and to make an appointment at the clinic.

  • Suggest that the client learn to accept the cough as a side effect to a necessary prescription.

  • Encourage the client to keep taking the drug until seen by the health care provider.

Explanation

Correct Answer D. Encourage the client to keep taking the drug until seen by the health care provider.

Explanation:

A persistent, dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to increased bradykinin levels. While it is often not dangerous, it can be bothersome and may require switching to another medication (such as an ARB). The nurse should advise the client to continue the medication until evaluated by the health care provider to avoid uncontrolled hypertension or other complications.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Advise the client to come to the clinic immediately for further assessment.

An immediate visit is not required unless there are signs of a serious reaction such as angioedema, shortness of breath, or swelling of the face and throat.

B. Instruct the client to discontinue use of the drug and to make an appointment at the clinic.

Stopping the drug abruptly without medical supervision can lead to uncontrolled blood pressure and potential cardiovascular complications.

C. Suggest that the client learn to accept the cough as a side effect to a necessary prescription.

While the cough is a known side effect, it may be intolerable for some clients, and there are alternative medications. Dismissing the symptom is not appropriate without considering other options.


10.

When assessing a newborn girl with salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency, the nurse notes that the infant has an enlarged clitoris. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

  • Review transcutaneous bilirubin levels with a bilirubinometer

  • Observe and palpate newborn's breast tissue for enlargement

  • Assess for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema.

  • Explain to mother that the finding is due to increased androgen

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. Explain to mother that the finding is due to increased androgen

Explanation

In congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency, the adrenal glands cannot produce sufficient cortisol and aldosterone. As a result, excess adrenal androgens are produced, leading to virilization of female genitalia, such as clitoral enlargement. The nurse should provide clear, supportive education to the mother, explaining that the finding is due to elevated androgen levels. This helps reduce parental anxiety and supports understanding of the condition.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. Review transcutaneous bilirubin levels with a bilirubinometer

Bilirubin measurement is used to assess for jaundice. Clitoral enlargement in CAH is unrelated to bilirubin metabolism and does not require this intervention.

B. Observe and palpate newborn's breast tissue for enlargement

Breast tissue enlargement may occur in newborns due to maternal hormones but has no connection to clitoral enlargement in CAH. This assessment does not address the current finding.

C. Assess for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema

Salt-wasting CAH is associated with dehydration, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia, not fluid retention. Pedal edema is not expected and is not relevant to the finding of clitoral enlargement.


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WGU HESI RN D444 Adult Health - Comprehensive Study Notes

1. Introduction to Adult Health

  • Definition: Adult health nursing involves the care of adult patients with a focus on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health across a wide range of acute and chronic conditions. This includes both medical and surgical care for adults in various settings, including hospitals, clinics, and home healthcare.

  • Purpose and Goals: The primary goal is to provide competent, evidence-based care to adult patients while recognizing the individual’s physical, emotional, and psychological needs.

  • Key Concepts:

    • Holistic Care: Addressing the needs of the entire person, including physical, psychological, and social factors.

    • Patient-Centered Care: Focusing on the patient’s preferences, needs, and values.

    • Interdisciplinary Collaboration: Working with other healthcare professionals (doctors, specialists, pharmacists, etc.) to provide comprehensive care.

  • Example: Providing post-operative care for a patient recovering from knee replacement surgery, including pain management, mobility assistance, and psychological support.

2. Adult Health Nursing Theories and Models

  • Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory: Focuses on the patient’s ability to perform self-care activities and identifying areas where assistance is needed. It is crucial in adult health nursing to empower patients to take control of their health.

  • Roy’s Adaptation Model: Suggests that health care should help the patient adapt to changes in their physiological and environmental conditions. This model helps nurses support patients in adapting to chronic diseases or acute health changes.

  • Peplau’s Interpersonal Relations Theory: Emphasizes the nurse-patient relationship and the importance of therapeutic communication. It helps adult health nurses understand how to provide emotional and psychological support during the healing process.

3. Common Adult Health Conditions

Adult health nursing addresses a wide range of health conditions, focusing on the common diseases and disorders that affect adults.

  • Cardiovascular Diseases:

    • Hypertension: High blood pressure, often managed with lifestyle changes and medications.

    • Coronary Artery Disease (CAD): A condition where plaque builds up in the arteries, leading to chest pain or heart attacks.

    • Heart Failure: The inability of the heart to pump blood effectively, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath, fatigue, and fluid retention.

  • Respiratory Diseases:

    • Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD): A group of lung diseases, including emphysema and chronic bronchitis, that block airflow and make breathing difficult.

    • Pneumonia: Infection causing inflammation in the lungs, typically treated with antibiotics.

  • Endocrine Disorders:

    • Diabetes Mellitus: A chronic condition affecting the body's ability to regulate blood sugar. Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes are the primary forms.

    • Hypothyroidism: Underactive thyroid, which can lead to symptoms such as weight gain, fatigue, and depression.

  • Gastrointestinal Disorders:

    • Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD): A condition where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing heartburn and irritation.

    • Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Disease: Chronic inflammatory bowel diseases affecting the gastrointestinal tract.

  • Renal Disorders:

    • Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD): Progressive loss of kidney function, often caused by diabetes or hypertension.

    • Acute Kidney Injury (AKI): Sudden loss of kidney function that requires immediate medical intervention.

  • Neurological Disorders:

    • Stroke: A sudden interruption of blood flow to the brain, leading to neurological deficits.

    • Parkinson’s Disease: A progressive neurological disorder that affects movement, causing tremors, stiffness, and balance issues.

  • Cancer: Adult health nurses often provide care to individuals undergoing treatment for cancer, including chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgery.

4. Nursing Assessment and Diagnostics

  • Comprehensive Health Assessment: A systematic evaluation of the patient’s physical and psychological health, including a detailed history, physical examination, and assessment of functional status.

  • Common Diagnostic Tests:

    • Laboratory Tests: Blood tests (e.g., complete blood count, electrolytes, liver function tests) to assess organ function and identify abnormalities.

    • Imaging: X-rays, MRIs, CT scans, and ultrasounds to identify internal injuries, tumors, or organ damage.

    • ECG/EKG: Electrocardiogram to assess heart function, especially for patients with cardiac symptoms or diseases.

    • Pulmonary Function Tests: To evaluate lung function in patients with respiratory diseases like COPD or asthma.

  • Risk Assessment:

    • Falls Risk: Screening for risk factors related to mobility, vision, medications, and cognitive function.

    • Skin Integrity: Identifying risk for pressure ulcers, particularly in immobile patients or those with limited sensory perception.

5. Nursing Interventions and Care Plans

  • Pain Management: Effective strategies to manage acute or chronic pain, including pharmacological (e.g., opioids, NSAIDs) and non-pharmacological approaches (e.g., positioning, relaxation techniques, heat/cold therapy).

  • Fluid and Electrolyte Management: Monitoring fluid intake and output, administering IV fluids, and balancing electrolytes in conditions like dehydration or renal failure.

  • Nutritional Support: Assessing the patient’s nutritional needs, providing dietary advice, and managing conditions that require special diets (e.g., low sodium for heart failure, low sugar for diabetes).

  • Patient Education: Teaching patients about managing chronic diseases, understanding medications, and adopting lifestyle changes (e.g., smoking cessation, physical activity, dietary adjustments).

  • Wound Care: Dressing and managing wounds or surgical incisions to prevent infection and promote healing.

6. Chronic Disease Management

  • Chronic Disease Self-Management: Teaching patients how to monitor and manage their condition on a daily basis, including the use of medication, lifestyle changes, and regular monitoring (e.g., blood glucose monitoring for diabetes).

  • Palliative and End-of-Life Care: Providing compassionate care for patients with life-limiting conditions, focusing on symptom management, emotional support, and advanced care planning.

 

Frequently Asked Question

Our materials feature HESI RN D444 Adult Health Practice Questions and case-based scenarios

The guide contains over 300 exam-aligned practice questions, designed to help students prepare for the HESI RN D444 Adult Health exam.

Topics include cardiovascular care, respiratory care, renal health, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal health, patient assessments, pharmacology, and nursing interventions.

Yes! Each question includes a detailed rationale to explain why the correct answer is the best choice, helping students understand the material thoroughly.

The guide features real-world case studies and scenarios that help students connect theoretical knowledge to practical, clinical situations, improving clinical decision-making skills.

Yes, with a subscription, you gain continuous access to the guide and any updates, ensuring you have the most current information available for your studies.

Absolutely! The guide is designed for all levels of students, whether you are just starting your nursing education or looking to refine your knowledge in adult health.