SUM26 Mid term Categorized - College of Veterinary Medicine
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Free SUM26 Mid term Categorized - College of Veterinary Medicine Questions
What is the most important vasoactive molecule released by mast cells in most species?
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Kinin
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Integrin
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Histamine
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Chemokine
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Histamine
Histamine is the most important vasoactive molecule released by mast cells in most species. Upon degranulation, mast cells release histamine, which causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, key components of the inflammatory response.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Kinin Kinins are vasoactive peptides generated through a separate plasma protein cascade (the kinin system), not the primary molecule released directly by mast cells.
B. Integrin Integrins are cell adhesion molecules that help leukocytes adhere to and migrate through blood vessel walls; they are not vasoactive molecules released by mast cells.
D. Chemokine Chemokines are signaling proteins that attract immune cells to sites of infection or injury, but they are not the primary vasoactive molecule associated with mast cell degranulation.
Read the attached pathology report. What term describes the following? Infected mosquito feeds on dog > Heartworm infection > Cardiopulmonary disease and death
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Morphologic diagnosis
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Pathogenesis
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Disease
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Gross lesions
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) Pathogenesis
Pathogenesis refers to the sequential mechanism or chain of events by which a disease develops, from the initial cause through the progression of cellular and tissue changes to the ultimate outcome. Here, the sequence of the mosquito transmitting the infection, leading to heartworm infection, and progressing to cardiopulmonary disease and death describes this stepwise developmental process.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Morphologic diagnosis — This refers to the structural or anatomic description of the lesions themselves (such as "eosinophilic pneumonia"), not the sequence of events leading to disease.
C. Disease — Disease refers to the clinical condition or illness itself (heartworm disease), not the stepwise causal sequence describing how it developed.
D. Gross lesions — Gross lesions refer to the visible structural abnormalities observed on necropsy, such as adult heartworms in the heart and lungs, not the causal sequence of events.
Which class of immunoglobulin is dimeric and important in mucosal immunity?
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IgM
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IgA
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IgG
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IgE
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) IgA
IgA exists in a dimeric form, particularly in secretions such as saliva, tears, and mucus, making it the primary immunoglobulin responsible for mucosal immunity. Its structure allows it to be secreted across mucosal surfaces to protect against pathogens at these entry points.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. IgM IgM typically exists as a pentamer and is primarily involved in the primary immune response, not mucosal immunity specifically.
C. IgG IgG is a monomer and is the most abundant immunoglobulin in blood, playing a major role in systemic immunity, not mucosal-specific protection.
D. IgE IgE is a monomer primarily involved in allergic responses and defense against parasitic infections, not mucosal immunity in the way IgA is.
Which term best describes humoral immunity?
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Cell mediated immunity
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Wound healing
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Inflammation
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Antibody mediated immunity
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Antibody mediated immunity
Humoral immunity is best described as antibody-mediated immunity, as it involves the production of antibodies by B lymphocytes (plasma cells) that target pathogens and toxins present in extracellular fluids.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Cell mediated immunity This describes a different branch of adaptive immunity involving T lymphocytes directly targeting infected or abnormal cells, not antibody production.
B. Wound healing This is a separate physiological process related to tissue repair and is not a description of humoral immunity.
C. Inflammation Inflammation is a general protective response to injury or infection involving multiple immune components, not a specific term for humoral immunity.
Two fish in a 50-gallon aquarium with African cichlids died over the past 2 days, and now some fish are anorexic and appear to be swimming near the surface of the water. The owner states he started the aquarium 2 weeks ago, and the water quality one week ago had a slight elevation of nitrites and nitrates with high ammonia. The fish are fed an African cichlid flake food twice daily, and there are small rocks for substrate. The water filtration system consists of an overflow filter with charcoal and mesh filtration. What is the most likely cause of the fish deaths, and what is the treatment to prevent more fish deaths?
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Gas bubble disease, increase the air flow into the aquarium
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New tank syndrome with elevated ammonia, fresh water change, decrease food
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Ichthyophthirius bacterial infection, treat with antibiotics
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High burden of parasites, treat with fenbendazole
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) New tank syndrome with elevated ammonia, fresh water change, decrease food
New tank syndrome occurs in newly established aquariums where the beneficial nitrogen-cycling bacteria have not yet had time to fully colonize the filtration system, resulting in a buildup of toxic ammonia and nitrites, exactly as described with the elevated ammonia, nitrites, and nitrates. The appropriate treatment is a fresh water change to dilute toxins and decreasing food intake to reduce waste production while the biological filter matures.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Gas bubble disease, increase the air flow into the aquarium Gas bubble disease is caused by supersaturation of dissolved gases in the water, not by elevated ammonia and nitrite levels, and would not explain the water quality findings described.
C. Ichthyophthirius bacterial infection, treat with antibiotics Ichthyophthirius (Ich) is actually a protozoal parasite, not a bacterial infection, and would not be treated with antibiotics; additionally, the water quality data points to ammonia toxicity, not a parasitic infection.
D. High burden of parasites, treat with fenbendazole There is no clinical evidence of parasites described in the scenario; the water chemistry findings directly point to ammonia/nitrite toxicity from an immature tank cycle instead.
A clinician wishes to accelerate the renal clearance of an acidic toxin pKa = 5.0 in a dog that has accidentally ingested household poison. What systemic clinical intervention will most directly enhance the elimination of this toxin via urinary ion trapping?
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Administering an agent to acidify the patient's urine
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Administering a high-affinity albumin infusion to bind free toxins
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Administering an agent to alkalinize the patient's urine
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Administering a hypertonic saline fluid bolus to drop plasma pH
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Administering an agent to alkalinize the patient's urine
For an acidic toxin, alkalinizing the urine raises the urine pH above the toxin's pKa of 5.0, causing greater ionization of the acidic drug within the renal tubules. Since ionized molecules cannot be easily reabsorbed back across the tubular membrane, this traps the toxin in the urine and enhances its renal clearance and elimination.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Administering an agent to acidify the patient's urine Acidifying the urine would keep the acidic toxin in its non-ionized form, allowing it to be reabsorbed back into systemic circulation, which would decrease elimination rather than enhance it.
B. Administering a high-affinity albumin infusion to bind free toxins Binding toxins to albumin would actually keep them in circulation and reduce their availability for renal filtration and elimination, rather than enhancing clearance via ion trapping.
D. Administering a hypertonic saline fluid bolus to drop plasma pH This does not directly relate to the urinary ion trapping mechanism, and altering plasma pH is not the targeted intervention for enhancing renal elimination via this method; urine pH manipulation is the relevant approach.
What is a characteristic of an innate immune response?
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Memory
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T cell response
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Tolerance
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Rapid onset
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Rapid onset
The innate immune response is characterized by its rapid onset, providing an immediate, nonspecific defense against pathogens within minutes to hours of exposure, without the need for prior sensitization.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Memory Memory is a hallmark of the adaptive immune response, not the innate immune response, which does not retain specific memory of past pathogens.
B. T cell response T cell responses are part of the adaptive immune system's cell-mediated immunity, not the innate immune response.
C. Tolerance Tolerance is a property associated with the adaptive immune system's ability to distinguish self from non-self, not a defining characteristic of the innate immune response.
Use the image with this question. What type of tissue is seen in this image from the hindlimb of a canine?
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Cardiac muscle
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Elastic connective tissue
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Collagenous connective tissue
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Skeletal muscle
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Skeletal muscle
The image shows long, parallel, striated muscle fibers with peripherally located nuclei, which are characteristic features of skeletal muscle. The visible cross-striations result from the highly organized arrangement of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle fibers.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Cardiac muscle — Cardiac muscle displays branching fibers with centrally located nuclei and intercalated discs, none of which are seen in this image showing long, parallel, non-branching fibers with peripheral nuclei.
B. Elastic connective tissue — Elastic connective tissue consists of elastin fibers arranged in a matrix, lacking the organized striated fiber pattern and peripheral nuclei characteristic of the muscle tissue shown here.
C. Collagenous connective tissue — Collagenous connective tissue is composed of dense collagen fibers, which appear as pink, wavy bundles lacking the distinct cross-striations and peripheral nuclei seen in this skeletal muscle image.
Which of the following best describes the primary difference between a service dog and a therapy dog?
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Service dogs are only allowed in outdoor spaces, while therapy dogs are allowed exclusively inside medical facilities.
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Service dogs are trained to provide comfort to many people in hospitals, while therapy dogs perform specific tasks for a single owner with a disability.
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Service dogs have legal rights to enter public spaces with their handler, whereas therapy dogs do not have automatic public access rights.
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Therapy dogs require official registration under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), while service dogs are completely unregulated.
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Service dogs have legal rights to enter public spaces with their handler, whereas therapy dogs do not have automatic public access rights
Service dogs are individually trained to perform specific tasks for a person with a disability and are granted legal public access rights under the ADA. Therapy dogs, in contrast, provide comfort and emotional support to multiple people (often in facilities like hospitals or schools) but do not have the same automatic legal right to public access.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Service dogs are only allowed in outdoor spaces, while therapy dogs are allowed exclusively inside medical facilities. This reverses the actual distinction; service dogs are permitted in most public indoor and outdoor spaces, while therapy dogs typically work in specific facility settings by invitation.
B. Service dogs are trained to provide comfort to many people in hospitals, while therapy dogs perform specific tasks for a single owner with a disability. This description is actually reversed — it is therapy dogs that provide comfort to many people, while service dogs perform specific tasks for a single individual with a disability.
D. Therapy dogs require official registration under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), while service dogs are completely unregulated. The ADA does not require formal registration for either service or therapy dogs; service dogs are actually the ones covered under ADA protections for public access, not therapy dogs.
A technologist held an unruly dog without wearing lead gloves (red arrow). The other technologist wore lead gloves to hold the rear legs (blue arrows). What best describes the action of the technologist who was wearing the lead gloves?
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Not acceptable because the gloves are clearly made of thin leather and not lead
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Not acceptable because the gloves are too big
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Not acceptable because the gloves are in the primary beam and they are not designed for that
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Acceptable because the gloves will stop scattered radiation
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Not acceptable because the gloves are in the primary beam and they are not designed for that
Lead gloves are designed to protect against scattered radiation only, not the primary (direct) x-ray beam. When a technologist's hands are positioned within the primary beam, as shown by the rear leg restraint in this image, lead gloves do not provide adequate protection since the primary beam has far greater intensity than scatter radiation, making this practice unacceptable regardless of glove use.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Not acceptable because the gloves are clearly made of thin leather and not lead — The material composition of the gloves is not the primary issue identified; the fundamental problem is hand placement within the primary beam itself.
B. Not acceptable because the gloves are too big — Glove sizing is not the relevant safety concern in this scenario; the critical issue is beam exposure location.
D. Acceptable because the gloves will stop scattered radiation — While lead gloves do stop scattered radiation, this response is incorrect because the hands are positioned within the primary beam, where lead gloves are insufficient protection, making this practice unacceptable rather than acceptable.
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