Nur 215 Medical Surgical 1

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Free Nur 215 Medical Surgical 1 Questions

1.

The nurse is examining an adult patient after removal of a urinary catheter. For what purpose would the nurse use palpation?

  • Identifying renal artery bruits

  • Assessing for ureteral peristalsis

  • Checking for bladder distension

  • Determining kidney function

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Checking for bladder distension

Explanation:

Palpation is a hands-on physical assessment technique used to evaluate size, tenderness, or fullness of internal organs. After removing a urinary catheter, the nurse may palpate the lower abdomen to detect bladder distension, which would indicate that the bladder is filling but the patient is unable to avoid it. This helps identify issues such as urinary retention. Detecting distension early is key to preventing complications such as discomfort or infection.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

Identifying renal artery bruits

This requires auscultation, not palpation. The nurse uses a stethoscope to listen for turbulent blood flow sounds over the renal arteries, which can indicate stenosis or other vascular problems.

Assessing for ureteral peristalsis

Peristalsis in the ureters is not something that can be assessed through palpation. It requires imaging or more invasive studies, such as intravenous pyelogram or ultrasound.

Determining kidney function

Kidney function is evaluated through laboratory tests like serum creatinine or glomerular filtration rate (GFR), not physical palpation. Palpation cannot determine how well the kidneys are filtering blood.


2.

A nurse is teaching a patient who has a new prescription for ciprofloxacin to treat an uncomplicated urinary tract infection. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

  • “Take this medication with an antacid.”

  • “Monitor for tendon pain.”

  • “Limit fluid intake while on this medication.”

  • “Expect urine to turn dark orange.”

Explanation

Correct Answer:

“Monitor for tendon pain.”

Explanation:

Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, carries a black box warning for tendonitis and tendon rupture, particularly in older adults and those on corticosteroids. Patients should be instructed to report any new tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation, especially in the Achilles tendon. Early recognition and discontinuation of the drug can prevent further injury. Monitoring for musculoskeletal symptoms is a vital part of ciprofloxacin safety education.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

“Take this medication with an antacid.”

This is incorrect because antacids containing magnesium or aluminum can interfere with ciprofloxacin absorption. Patients should be instructed to separate ciprofloxacin from antacids by several hours.

“Limit fluid intake while on this medication.”

Fluids should not be restricted while taking ciprofloxacin. In fact, maintaining adequate hydration is encouraged to prevent crystalluria and support renal function.

“Expect urine to turn dark orange.”

This is an expected side effect of phenazopyridine (Pyridium), not ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin does not typically discolor urine, so this would be misleading.


3.

When caring for a patient on bed rest who has an indwelling urinary catheter, which action would be a priority for the nurse?

  • Follow good health habits to change the course of the disease

  • Keep active, use stress-reduction strategies and avoid fatigue

  • Practice using the mechanical aids that you will need with future disabilities arise

  • You will need to accept the necessity of a quiet and inactive lifestyle

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Keep active, use stress-reduction strategies and avoid fatigue

Explanation:

Even for patients on bed rest, encouraging as much activity as tolerated helps reduce complications like muscle atrophy, pressure injuries, and respiratory issues. For patients with an indwelling catheter, stress and fatigue can also impair immune function and recovery. Stress-reduction and energy conservation strategies are essential to preserve physical and mental well-being during limited mobility. Maintaining a positive, proactive approach to care supports recovery.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

Follow good health habits to change the course of the disease

This does not directly address the immediate nursing concern for a patient with a catheter and on bed rest. It is vague and not a priority intervention.

Practice using the mechanical aids that you will need with future disabilities arise

This statement assumes future decline and is not patient-centered or timely. The focus should be on current needs and abilities.

You will need to accept the necessity of a quiet and inactive lifestyle

This promotes passivity and can worsen physical deconditioning. Bed rest should be managed with interventions that promote safe mobility and prevent complications.


4.

A patient’s urinalysis indicates a large amount of protein in the urine. The nurse recognizes that this finding most likely indicates damage to which section of the urinary system?

  • Renal artery

  • Collecting ducts

  • Glomerulus

  • Loop of Henle

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Glomerulus

Explanation:

Proteinuria, or the presence of excess protein in the urine, typically indicates damage to the glomerulus. The glomerulus acts as a filter in the nephron, allowing waste products to pass while retaining larger molecules like proteins. Damage to this filtration barrier allows proteins to leak into the urine, which is a hallmark of glomerular injury.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

Renal artery

While the renal artery supplies blood to the kidney, it is not directly involved in filtration. Damage here would affect perfusion but not cause protein leakage unless it results in downstream glomerular damage.

Collecting ducts

The collecting ducts primarily function in water and electrolyte reabsorption under hormonal control. They do not filter blood or retain protein, so damage here would not result in proteinuria.

Loop of Henle

This structure plays a role in concentrating urine by reabsorbing water and salts. It does not serve as a filtration site for proteins, so damage here is unlikely to result in protein in the urine.


5.

A patient is suspected to have pyelonephritis. How will the nurse assess for flank tenderness?

  • Palpate along both sides of the lumbar vertebral column

  • Strike a flat hand covering the costovertebral angle (CVA)

  • Push fingers upward into the two lowest intercostal spaces

  • Percuss between the iliac crest and ribs at the midaxillary line

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Strike a flat hand covering the costovertebral angle (CVA)

Explanation:

Assessment for costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness is a standard method for evaluating flank pain, often associated with kidney infection such as pyelonephritis. The nurse places one hand flat over the CVA region and strikes it with the fist of the other hand. A positive response is pain or discomfort, indicating possible inflammation or infection in the kidney. This is a quick, non-invasive method to support diagnostic decisions.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

Palpate along both sides of the lumbar vertebral column

Palpation can assess muscle or skeletal tenderness but is not specific or reliable for evaluating kidney inflammation or infection.

Push fingers upward into the two lowest intercostal spaces

This technique is not relevant to kidney assessment. It may be used in abdominal exams but does not target the CVA where the kidneys are located.

Percuss between the iliac crest and ribs at the midaxillary line

Although this area may be near the CVA, this technique does not accurately localize kidney tenderness and is not the standard method for assessing flank pain related to pyelonephritis.


6.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. Which finding should the nurse expect?

  • Peripheral edema

  • Drooping eye lids

  • Loss of cognitive function

  • Fluctuations in heart rate

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Drooping eye lids

Explanation:

Ptosis, or drooping eyelids, is a hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis due to the autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors, leading to skeletal muscle weakness. Ocular symptoms such as ptosis and diplopia often appear first, especially after sustained muscle use. The weakness worsens with activity and improves with rest, which is characteristic of this disease. Recognizing early signs like ptosis is crucial for diagnosis and timely management.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

Peripheral edema

This is not associated with myasthenia gravis. Edema is more common in conditions related to fluid imbalance, heart failure, or kidney dysfunction.

Loss of cognitive function

Myasthenia gravis affects motor neurons, not cognitive processing. Patients typically maintain normal mental status unless affected by unrelated conditions or medication side effects.

Fluctuations in heart rate

While autonomic symptoms can occur in some advanced neuromuscular disorders, they are not a common feature of myasthenia gravis. Heart rate variability is not expected in routine cases.


7.

What lower urinary tract symptoms would the nurse expect to find if a patient has a urinary tract infection? Select all that apply.

  • Fever

  • Hesitancy

  • Nocturia

  • Dysuria

  • Incomplete emptying

  • Hematuria

  • Chills

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Hesitancy

Nocturia

Dysuria

Incomplete emptying

Hematuria


Explanation:

Lower urinary tract infection (UTI) typically presents with localized symptoms related to bladder irritation and incomplete bladder emptying. These include dysuria (painful urination), hesitancy (difficulty starting urination), nocturia (frequent urination at night), incomplete emptying, and sometimes hematuria (blood in the urine). These symptoms result from inflammation of the bladder and urethra due to bacterial invasion, most commonly by E. coli.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

Fever

Fever is more common in upper UTIs (such as pyelonephritis). Lower UTIs may not cause systemic signs like fever unless they progress.

Chills

Chills are also typically associated with systemic infection or upper urinary tract involvement. They are not hallmark signs of lower UTI alone.


8.

A nurse is assisting during a lumbar puncture. How should the nurse position the patient for this procedure?

  • Prone with the head turned to the right

  • Supine with the knees raised toward the chest

  • Lateral recumbent with chin resting on flexed knees

  • Prone with right leg flexed

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Lateral recumbent with chin resting on flexed knees

Explanation:

The lateral recumbent position with the patient’s back arched and chin resting on flexed knees allows maximum separation of the vertebrae. This positioning facilitates access to the subarachnoid space for the lumbar puncture. It also helps the patient remain still during the procedure, reducing the risk of needle misplacement. Correct positioning is essential to ensure safety and obtain accurate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

Prone with the head turned to the right

The prone position does not adequately separate the vertebrae and is not standard for lumbar puncture. It also makes needle placement more difficult and less controlled.

Supine with the knees raised toward the chest

This position does not offer the same degree of spinal flexion as the lateral recumbent position. It is not ideal for accessing the lumbar subarachnoid space.

Prone with right leg flexed

Again, the prone position is incorrect for this procedure, and flexing just one leg does not aid spinal access. This posture may actually increase patient discomfort without benefit.


9.

The nurse uses the Braden Scale to determine the patient’s risk for pressure injury development. Which subscales are used in calculating the score? Select all that apply.

  • Mobility

  • Pain

  • Nutrition

  • Sensory perception

  • Moisture

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Mobility

Nutrition

Sensory perception

Moisture


Explanation:

The Braden Scale is a validated tool used to assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries. It includes six subscales: sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear. These categories help evaluate the patient’s functional ability and skin integrity risk. Mobility, nutrition, sensory perception, and moisture are all core components that directly influence skin health and pressure injury risk.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

Pain

Pain is not one of the official subscales of the Braden Scale. Although pain may influence a patient's activity or behavior, it is not scored directly within this risk assessment tool.


10.

A patient is prescribed carbidopa/levodopa for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease. The patient asks the nurse whether this medication will cure their condition. Which is a correct statement about the effects of carbidopa/levodopa?

  • It does not alter the underlying disease process, but it may improve a client’s quality of life

  • It will send the disease into remission and eventually cure the disease

  • It will control the symptoms for 10 to 12 years

  • It is the treatment of last resort and may control symptoms

Explanation

Correct Answer:

It does not alter the underlying disease process, but it may improve a client’s quality of life

Explanation:

Carbidopa/levodopa is a cornerstone medication for managing the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. It does not modify or reverse the disease itself, as Parkinson’s is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Instead, the medication helps restore dopamine balance in the brain, which can significantly reduce motor symptoms such as tremors, stiffness, and slowness of movement. By relieving symptoms, it can greatly enhance the patient's quality of life even though the disease continues to progress.


Why Other Options Are Wrong:

It will send the disease into remission and eventually cure the disease

This is inaccurate because Parkinson’s disease is chronic and progressive. There is currently no known cure or remission phase for the disease, and medications only manage symptoms. This option creates a false sense of expectation about treatment outcomes.


It will control the symptoms for 10 to 12 years

While carbidopa/levodopa is initially effective, its long-term use is often associated with diminishing returns and complications like motor fluctuations and dyskinesias. The specific duration of symptom control varies and is not guaranteed for 10–12 years.


It is the treatment of last resort and may control symptoms

Carbidopa/levodopa is actually considered first-line therapy in many cases, especially when symptoms significantly impair functioning. Labeling it as a “treatment of last resort” is misleading and clinically incorrect.


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