Nur 215 Medical Surgical 1
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The nurse is aware that which patients are at risk for a skin alteration? (Drag the correct answers.)
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The patient who had numbness in the right arm that resolved several hours ago
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A patient who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes
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A patient who has had vomiting and diarrhea for several days and lost 12 pounds
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The patient who has paralysis and unable to move in the bed
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A roofer who spends a lot of time outdoors
Explanation
Correct Answer:
A patient who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes
A patient who has had vomiting and diarrhea for several days and lost 12 pounds
The patient who has paralysis and unable to move in the bed
A roofer who spends a lot of time outdoors
Explanation:
Patients at risk for skin alteration often have underlying conditions or exposures that compromise skin integrity. Diabetic patients are at increased risk due to impaired circulation and sensation. Dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea affects skin turgor and resilience. Immobility, as seen in paralyzed patients, leads to pressure injuries due to sustained pressure and poor circulation. Roofers experience prolonged sun exposure and sweat buildup, both of which can weaken skin and increase the risk of breakdown.
Why Other Option Is Wrong:
The patient who had numbness in the right arm that resolved several hours ago
Transient numbness without lasting sensory impairment or immobility does not significantly raise the risk of skin breakdown. Once sensation returns, normal skin protection mechanisms are restored.
The nurse educates a patient diagnosed with a UTI. Which diet choices should be avoided to prevent bladder irritation?
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Breads
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Fresh fruits
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Caffeine
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Cheeses
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Caffeine
Explanation:
Caffeine is known to irritate the bladder lining and can worsen urinary tract infection (UTI) symptoms such as urgency, frequency, and discomfort. It is a diuretic and bladder stimulant that increases urine output and may exacerbate irritation during a UTI. Patients with UTIs are advised to avoid caffeinated beverages like coffee, tea, and cola to help reduce symptoms and promote healing. Hydration with water and bladder-friendly fluids is recommended instead.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Breads
Plain breads do not contain bladder irritants and are generally well tolerated during a UTI. They do not impact urinary tract health negatively.
Fresh fruits
Most fresh fruits are helpful due to their hydration and vitamin content. Exceptions include highly acidic ones like citrus, but in general, fruits support immune health and are not blanket irritants.
Cheeses
Cheese is not associated with bladder irritation. Unless a patient has another condition such as lactose intolerance or dietary restriction, cheese can be safely consumed during a UTI.
When performing a physical assessment of the patient’s skin, which principle should guide the nurse?
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Use layman’s terms when reporting or documenting.
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Compare symmetric parts.
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Inspect specific lesions before performing a generalized examination of the skin.
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Palpate the temperature of the skin with the fingertips.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Compare symmetric parts.
Explanation:
During a physical assessment of the skin, nurses should compare symmetrical body parts to detect differences or abnormalities. This principle ensures a consistent and thorough evaluation of skin tone, texture, lesions, temperature, or edema. Comparing both sides helps identify unilateral conditions and provides a clearer clinical picture, which is essential for accurate documentation and decision-making. This approach is fundamental in all physical assessments.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Use layman’s terms when reporting or documenting.
This is incorrect because healthcare professionals are expected to use accurate medical terminology in documentation to maintain clarity and standardization across providers. While layman’s terms may be used when speaking with patients, documentation should reflect professional language.
Inspect specific lesions before performing a generalized examination of the skin.
This is not the recommended sequence. Nurses should start with a general overview of the skin before focusing on specific lesions. A broad view helps provide context and identify patterns that may not be evident if the focus is limited early in the assessment.
Palpate the temperature of the skin with the fingertips.
This is an incorrect technique. The dorsum (back) of the hand, not the fingertips, is more sensitive to temperature and is the correct method for palpating skin temperature. Using fingertips may not provide an accurate thermal assessment.
An elderly male patient reports having urinary frequency, retention, and dribbling. What does the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?
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Deficits in mobility
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Prostate enlargement
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Normal urinary symptoms for an elderly male
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Coughing or sneezing
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Prostate enlargement
Explanation:
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), or prostate enlargement, is a common cause of urinary issues in elderly men. The enlarged prostate presses against the urethra and impedes urine flow, leading to symptoms such as frequency, hesitancy, retention, and dribbling. These symptoms are not simply normal aging but are associated with anatomical obstruction. Identifying and addressing BPH is crucial to managing urinary complications.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Deficits in mobility
While mobility issues can contribute to incontinence or delayed toileting, they are not the primary cause of urinary retention or dribbling. The hallmark obstruction symptoms in this case point more directly to prostate issues.
Normal urinary symptoms for an elderly male
Although some urinary changes may occur with age, retention and dribbling are not considered normal and should always be evaluated. Assuming they are “normal” may delay necessary treatment.
Coughing or sneezing
These actions can cause stress incontinence, more commonly seen in females. They are not typically associated with retention or dribbling in males and are unrelated to prostate function.
The nurse educates a patient diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) that adequate fluid intake provides what benefit?
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Creatinine levels are more stable but unpredictably useful.
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Kidneys are less irritable, but bacteria has time to colonize and multiply.
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Hydration status is not beneficial but may help if combined with high caloric intake.
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Dilutes urine and often flushes out bacteria before colonization.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Dilutes urine and often flushes out bacteria before colonization.
Explanation:
Increasing fluid intake during a UTI helps dilute the urine, which can reduce irritation of the urinary tract and assist in flushing out bacteria before they can adhere to the uroepithelial lining and colonize. This reduces the bacterial load and supports the body’s immune defense. Adequate hydration is a simple but effective non-pharmacologic measure to support treatment and reduce symptom severity. Encouraging patients to drink fluids is standard patient education in UTI care.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Creatinine levels are more stable but unpredictably useful.
This is misleading. While hydration may influence creatinine levels, the statement is vague and unrelated to UTI-specific benefits. Stability of creatinine isn’t the primary goal or benefit of fluid intake during a urinary tract infection, making this choice incorrect.
Kidneys are less irritable, but bacteria has time to colonize and multiply.
This is inaccurate. While adequate fluids can reduce irritation, increased urination actually helps prevent bacterial colonization. This option incorrectly suggests that hydration delays bacterial clearance, which contradicts the purpose of fluid therapy in UTIs.
Hydration status is not beneficial but may help if combined with high caloric intake.
This is incorrect and misleading. Hydration is indeed beneficial independently of caloric intake, especially in flushing bacteria from the urinary tract. Caloric intake does not significantly affect the flushing or dilution of urine in UTI management, making this choice factually wrong.
A patient is diagnosed with contact dermatitis. Which medication should the nurse expect to be prescribed to treat this disorder?
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Topical corticosteroid
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Intravenous corticosteroid
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Intravenous antibiotic
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Oral antibiotic
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Topical corticosteroid
Explanation:
Contact dermatitis is a localized inflammatory skin condition typically caused by an irritant or allergen. The standard treatment is a topical corticosteroid, which helps reduce redness, swelling, and itching by suppressing the inflammatory response in the skin. It is applied directly to the affected area and is usually effective in mild to moderate cases. Systemic treatment is generally reserved for severe or widespread reactions.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Intravenous corticosteroid
This is not commonly used for contact dermatitis unless the condition is severe and widespread. Systemic corticosteroids are generally a second-line treatment.
Intravenous antibiotic
Contact dermatitis is not an infectious condition, so antibiotics are not appropriate unless there is secondary infection, which is not the first-line concern.
Oral antibiotic
Similarly, oral antibiotics are not needed unless there is a superimposed bacterial infection. The primary treatment focuses on reducing inflammation, not eliminating bacteria.
The nurse is providing patient teaching on the normal physiological changes of aging on the urinary system. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
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Kidneys are able to concentrate urine
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Patient may experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia
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Kidney is easily palpated
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Patient will eventually require wearing a brief at all times
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Patient may experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia
Explanation:
With aging, several normal physiological changes occur in the urinary system. Decreased bladder capacity, reduced bladder tone, and weakened sphincter muscles contribute to urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia. These changes are not necessarily signs of disease but are common in the older adult population. Educating patients on these expected changes helps set realistic expectations and promotes early detection of abnormal patterns.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Kidneys are able to concentrate urine
This is incorrect because aging kidneys actually have a reduced ability to concentrate urine. This can contribute to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance in older adults.
Kidney is easily palpated
Normally, the kidneys are not easily palpated unless they are enlarged or displaced. In healthy aging, this is not an expected finding and may indicate pathology.
Patient will eventually require wearing a brief at all times
This is an overgeneralization. While incontinence may increase with age, not all elderly individuals require briefs, and many manage urinary function independently or with minimal support.
A nurse is assisting during a lumbar puncture. How should the nurse position the patient for this procedure?
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Prone with the head turned to the right
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Supine with the knees raised toward the chest
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Lateral recumbent with chin resting on flexed knees
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Prone with right leg flexed
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Lateral recumbent with chin resting on flexed knees
Explanation:
The lateral recumbent position with the patient’s back arched and chin resting on flexed knees allows maximum separation of the vertebrae. This positioning facilitates access to the subarachnoid space for the lumbar puncture. It also helps the patient remain still during the procedure, reducing the risk of needle misplacement. Correct positioning is essential to ensure safety and obtain accurate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Prone with the head turned to the right
The prone position does not adequately separate the vertebrae and is not standard for lumbar puncture. It also makes needle placement more difficult and less controlled.
Supine with the knees raised toward the chest
This position does not offer the same degree of spinal flexion as the lateral recumbent position. It is not ideal for accessing the lumbar subarachnoid space.
Prone with right leg flexed
Again, the prone position is incorrect for this procedure, and flexing just one leg does not aid spinal access. This posture may actually increase patient discomfort without benefit.
The nurse is performing a patient assessment and uses the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) for what purpose?
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Assess pupillary response
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Assess level of consciousness
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Test muscle strength
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Determine memory loss
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Assess level of consciousness
Explanation:
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness after a brain injury or during neurological assessments. It evaluates three key functions: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response, with scores indicating the severity of impaired consciousness. The GCS helps healthcare providers quickly determine the neurological status and monitor for changes. It is especially critical in trauma, ICU, and stroke settings where level of consciousness is essential to treatment decisions.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Assess pupillary response
This is incorrect because the GCS does not assess pupil size or reactivity. Pupillary response is typically evaluated separately during a full neurological exam and involves checking for changes in size, shape, and light reflex.
Test muscle strength
This is inaccurate. While the motor response is part of the GCS, it does not specifically measure strength but rather the patient's ability to respond to stimuli. Muscle strength is assessed using separate grading systems like the Manual Muscle Testing scale.
Determine memory loss
This is incorrect. Memory assessment involves cognitive tests, such as asking the patient to recall information or events. The GCS does not include components that evaluate short- or long-term memory function.
A patient's urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago, and the patient has not voided. What is the next nursing action?
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Insert indwelling urinary catheter.
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Position the patient on their left side.
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Perform a bladder scan.
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Instruct the patient to drink fluids.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Perform a bladder scan.
Explanation:
After 8 hours without voiding post-catheter removal, a bladder scan is the most appropriate next action. It is a noninvasive way to assess for urinary retention and determine the volume of urine in the bladder. This diagnostic step helps the nurse decide whether catheterization is needed or if conservative measures are sufficient. It avoids unnecessary reinsertion of a catheter, which carries a risk of infection, and ensures clinical decisions are based on actual bladder volume.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Insert indwelling urinary catheter.
This is premature without knowing if the bladder is full. Inserting a catheter without confirming retention exposes the patient to unnecessary risk, including infection. A bladder scan should first confirm that urinary retention is present.
Position the patient on their left side.
This has no known benefit in promoting urination and does not address the clinical concern. Positioning the patient laterally may be useful for other conditions but is not relevant to assessing or promoting voiding.
Instruct the patient to drink fluids.
While hydration supports urinary output, the patient has already gone 8 hours without voiding. Encouraging fluids may delay needed intervention if the bladder is already distended. First assessing the bladder with a scan ensures timely and appropriate care.
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