HESI RN OB Exam ( Hesi Maternal Health )
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Free HESI RN OB Exam ( Hesi Maternal Health ) Questions
An older adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The practical nurse (PN) notes that in the evening, the client becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which instruction should the PN provide to the unlicensed assistive personnel who is assisting in the care of the client
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Calmly offer to walk around the hallways with the client
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Make sure the room lights are dimmed to calm the client
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Leave the client alone until signs of agitation have passed
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Measure the client's vital signs at the onset of agitation.
Explanation
The correct answer is: Calmly offer to walk around the hallways with the client.
Explanation:
This scenario suggests that the client may be experiencing sundowning, a phenomenon in which confusion, agitation, and restlessness worsen in the evening, often seen in older adults with dementia. The behavior may be exacerbated by environmental factors, fatigue, and changes in routine. A helpful intervention is to engage the client in a calming and purposeful activity such as walking, which can distract from the agitation and help reduce restlessness.
Why the Other Answers Are Incorrect:
Make sure the room lights are dimmed to calm the client.
While dimming the lights might help create a more relaxing atmosphere for some clients, it is not a universally effective approach for sundowning. In some individuals with dementia, dim lighting can exacerbate confusion and lead to more agitation. Maintaining good lighting is important to avoid visual misperceptions and confusion, which may worsen agitation.
Leave the client alone until signs of agitation have passed.
This approach may not be effective because leaving the client alone can increase feelings of isolation and confusion, which may worsen agitation and anxiety. Instead, providing reassurance, engaging in activities, and offering a calm presence can help manage symptoms.
Measure the client's vital signs at the onset of agitation.
While measuring vital signs may be necessary if there are concerns about a physical cause for the agitation (e.g., pain, infection, or other medical issues), in the context of dementia and sundowning, the agitation is typically related to cognitive changes rather than a medical emergency. The priority should be to manage the agitation with comforting interventions rather than focusing on vital signs unless the client exhibits signs of distress that warrant this.
Summary:
For a client exhibiting signs of sundowning, it is helpful to engage them in a calm, structured activity like walking. This approach offers physical movement, distraction, and reassurance, which can help alleviate restlessness and confusion.
A female client with insulin-dependent diabetes arrives at the clinic seeking a plan to get pregnant in approximately 6 months. She tells the nurse that she wants to have an uncomplicated pregnancy and a healthy baby. What information should the nurse share with the client
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Your current dose of insulin should be maintained throughout your pregnancy.
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Maintain blood sugar levels in a constant range within normal limits during pregnancy
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The course and outcome of your pregnancy is not an achievable goal with diabetes
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Expect an increase in insulin dosages by 5 units/week during the first trimester
Explanation
The correct answer is: Maintain blood sugar levels in a constant range within normal limits during pregnancy.
Explanation:
For a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes planning to get pregnant, it is crucial to maintain tight glucose control before and during pregnancy. Proper management of blood glucose levels is essential to reduce the risk of complications such as macrosomia, neonatal hypoglycemia, preterm birth, and congenital malformations. Keeping blood sugar levels within normal limits throughout pregnancy is critical for both the mother's health and the baby's development. This will help to minimize the risks associated with diabetes and improve the chances of having an uncomplicated pregnancy and a healthy baby.
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
Your current dose of insulin should be maintained throughout your pregnancy.
This statement is not correct. During pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, insulin needs often decrease due to increased insulin sensitivity, and they typically increase during the second and third trimesters as the placenta produces hormones that counteract insulin. Therefore, it is important to adjust insulin doses according to blood glucose levels and gestational changes.
The course and outcome of your pregnancy is not an achievable goal with diabetes.
This is an overly pessimistic and incorrect statement. With proper blood glucose management, women with insulin-dependent diabetes can have healthy pregnancies and healthy babies. The goal is to maintain optimal glucose control to prevent complications, but a healthy pregnancy and outcome are definitely achievable.
Expect an increase in insulin dosages by 5 units/week during the first trimester.
Insulin requirements do not typically increase during the first trimester. In fact, many women experience lower insulin needs during early pregnancy due to enhanced insulin sensitivity. The need for insulin typically increases during the second and third trimesters as insulin resistance develops due to hormonal changes.
Summary:
The correct response is "Maintain blood sugar levels in a constant range within normal limits during pregnancy" (B) because this is key to preventing complications for both the mother and the baby. It is important to monitor blood glucose levels frequently and adjust insulin as needed to maintain control. Other statements about maintaining insulin doses or predicting specific increases in dosages are inaccurate in the context of pregnancy.
The practical nurse (PN) caring for a 3-month-old boy one day after a pyloromyotomy notices that the infant is restless, is exhibiting facial grimaces, and is drawing his knees to his chest. What action should the PN take
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Feed one ounce of formula to correct hypoglycemia.
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Administer a prescribed analgesia for pain.
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Provide additional blankets to increase body temperature.
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Increase IV infusion rate for rehydration.
Explanation
The correct answer is : Administer a prescribed analgesia for pain.
Explanation
A pyloromyotomy is a surgical procedure performed to correct pyloric stenosis, a condition in which the pyloric sphincter is abnormally thickened, leading to gastric outlet obstruction in infants. Postoperatively, pain management is essential for the infant’s recovery.
In this case, the 3-month-old infant is showing classic signs of pain, including restlessness, facial grimacing, and drawing the knees to the chest. These are common nonverbal pain indicators in infants who cannot verbally express their discomfort. Pain should be promptly addressed to promote comfort and recovery.
Postoperative pain in infants is typically managed using acetaminophen or opioids as prescribed. Proper pain management:
Reduces stress and discomfort, which can prevent complications such as delayed gastric emptying.
Promotes healing by allowing the infant to rest and feed more effectively.
Prevents potential postoperative complications such as increased intracranial pressure due to excessive crying.
Why the Other Answers Are Incorrect
Feed one ounce of formula to correct hypoglycemia
While gradual feeding is reintroduced after surgery, hypoglycemia is not indicated in this scenario. The infant’s symptoms—grimacing, restlessness, and knee flexion—suggest pain rather than low blood sugar.
Feeding is typically resumed gradually after pyloromyotomy, starting with clear liquids, followed by small amounts of formula or breast milk as tolerated. However, pain should be controlled before reintroducing oral intake.
Provide additional blankets to increase body temperature
While hypothermia can be a concern in infants, there is no indication that the baby is cold. Restlessness, grimacing, and knee flexion are more consistent with pain rather than cold stress.
If the infant were hypothermic, additional blankets could help, but the primary issue here is pain, which requires analgesia.
Increase IV infusion rate for rehydration
IV fluids are used postoperatively to prevent dehydration since infants with pyloric stenosis often have preoperative dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to projectile vomiting.
However, IV fluid administration does not address the infant’s pain.
Increasing the IV infusion rate without medical orders could lead to fluid overload, which can cause complications such as pulmonary edema or electrolyte imbalances.
Summary
The best action is to administer the prescribed analgesic, as the infant’s symptoms strongly indicate postoperative pain. Managing pain is essential for recovery, promoting comfort, and preventing further distress. Feeding, warming, or increasing IV fluids do not directly address the underlying issue, which is pain.
At a prenatal visit, a primigravida client confides to the practical nurse (PN) that her partner is abusive. Which information should the PN provide
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Contact information for a women's shelter
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Safety plan to keep in a purse at all times.
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Visit summary documenting the report of abuse.
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Paperwork needed to file a restraining order.
Explanation
The correct answer is: Contact information for a women's shelter.
Explanation:
When a client discloses that they are experiencing abuse, it is crucial for the practical nurse (PN) to provide immediate and practical support. Offering contact information for a women’s shelter is an appropriate response as these shelters provide safe spaces, emotional support, resources, and access to professionals who specialize in helping victims of abuse. This allows the client to access emergency care and support in a safe environment.
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
Safety plan to keep in a purse at all times:
While a safety plan is an important tool for those in abusive relationships, it should be developed in collaboration with the client and other professionals, such as social workers or counselors, who specialize in intimate partner violence. Providing a general safety plan without understanding the specifics of the situation may not be as effective or tailored to the client’s unique needs.
Visit summary documenting the report of abuse:
While documentation is important for legal and medical reasons, it is not the PN's primary responsibility to document an abuse report unless required by law or the healthcare institution’s policies. The priority is to provide immediate safety and resources, rather than focusing solely on documentation. Additionally, the client may not feel ready to have the abuse documented, and confidentiality must always be maintained unless there is an immediate risk to the client's or others' safety.
Paperwork needed to file a restraining order:
Although filing a restraining order is an important step for some clients in abusive situations, it should not be the immediate action provided by the PN. The priority is to offer the client immediate resources and support to ensure their safety. Legal actions like restraining orders can be discussed with a counselor or legal professional once the client is in a safe space and ready to take that step.
Summary:
The best response is to provide contact information for a women’s shelter (A), as it offers immediate support and access to resources for a client in an abusive relationship. The other options either assume a level of readiness or focus on documentation, which are not the most immediate or compassionate responses to a disclosure of abuse. The client’s safety and immediate needs should be the primary focus.
The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a full-term newborn during the first hour of transition using the Ballard (Dubowitz) scale. Based on this assessment, the nurse determines that the neonate has a maturity rating of 40-weeks. What findings should the nurse identify to determine if the neonate is small for gestational age
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Admission weight of 4 pounds, 15 ounces (2244 grams)
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Head to heel length of 17 inches (42.5 cm)
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Frontal occipital circumference of 12.5 inches (31.25 cm)
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Skin smooth with visible veins and abundant vernix
- Anterior plantar crease and smooth heel surfaces
- full flexion of all extremities in resting supine position
Explanation
The correct answers are:
Admission weight of 4 pounds, 15 ounces (2244 grams)
Head to heel length of 17 inches (42.5 cm)
Frontal occipital circumference of 12.5 inches (31.25 cm)
Explanation:
Small for gestational age (SGA) refers to newborns whose weight, length, or head circumference falls below the 10th percentile for their gestational age. A gestational age of 40 weeks indicates full-term status, but for a neonate to be classified as SGA, certain measurements must be assessed.
Admission weight of 4 pounds, 15 ounces (2244 grams):
This weight is below the typical range for a full-term neonate, indicating that the baby may be SGA. The normal birth weight for a full-term infant is generally between 5.5 to 8.8 pounds (2500 to 4000 grams), so a weight of 2244 grams is considered low for a full-term infant.
Head to heel length of 17 inches (42.5 cm):
This length is shorter than the typical range for a full-term newborn, indicating that the infant may be SGA. The average length of a full-term infant is usually around 19-21 inches (48-53 cm).
Frontal occipital circumference of 12.5 inches (31.25 cm):
A smaller head circumference than average for a full-term infant may also suggest SGA. A typical head circumference for a full-term newborn is around 13.5-14 inches (34-36 cm).
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
Skin smooth with visible veins and abundant vernix:
These are typical findings for a full-term neonate and do not indicate SGA. SGA infants often have dry, peeling skin, and less vernix than full-term infants.
Anterior plantar crease and smooth heel surfaces:
These are normal findings in a full-term neonate, indicating typical gestational maturity and not suggesting SGA.
Full flexion of all extremities in resting supine position:
Full flexion of the extremities is typical of a full-term newborn and does not indicate SGA. SGA infants may appear less flexed, with looser muscle tone.
Summary:
To determine if a neonate is small for gestational age (SGA), the nurse should focus on abnormal physical measurements, such as a low admission weight (A), short length (B), and smaller head circumference (C). The other findings listed are typical for a full-term neonate and do not suggest SGA.
A client at 25-weeks gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a cooking utensil last week and her baby jumped in response to the noise. What information should the nurse provide
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Report the fetus's behavior to the healthcare provider
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The fetus can respond to sound by 24-weeks gestation.
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This is a demonstration of the fetus's acoustical reflex.
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It is a coincidence the fetus responded at the same time.
Explanation
The correct answer is: The fetus can respond to sound by 24-weeks gestation.
Explanation:
At 24 weeks gestation, the fetus begins to respond to sounds, particularly louder, sudden noises. By 25 weeks, the fetus has developed the ability to hear external sounds and may show a response to them, such as jumping or moving when exposed to sudden sounds. This is a normal developmental milestone in fetal sensory development.
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
Report the fetus's behavior to the healthcare provider.
There is no indication that the fetus's behavior is abnormal or concerning. Responding to external sounds, like a cooking utensil dropping, is a normal physiological reaction. Reporting this to the healthcare provider is unnecessary unless there are other symptoms or concerns that accompany it.
This is a demonstration of the fetus's acoustical reflex.
While it is true that the fetus can respond to sound, the term "acoustical reflex" typically refers to a specific type of reflex in response to loud sounds or certain frequencies. The behavior described (the baby "jumping" in response to noise) is more accurately a normal response to external auditory stimuli, rather than a reflex. The term "response to sound" is a more general and accurate description in this case.
It is a coincidence the fetus responded at the same time.
The fetus's response to a loud sound is not a coincidence. As mentioned, by 24 weeks, the fetus is able to respond to external stimuli like sound. It is a normal developmental milestone and not a random occurrence.
Summary:
The correct response is B. The fetus can respond to sound by 24-weeks gestation, as it provides accurate, evidence-based information that reassures the client about the normal development of the fetus's sensory capabilities.
A client with NO prenatal care arrives at the labor unit screaming, "The baby is coming!" The nurse performs a vaginal examination that reveals the cervix is 3 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced. What additional information is most important for the nurse to obtain
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Gravidity and parity
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Time and amount of last oral intake
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Date of last normal menstrual period
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Frequency and intensity of contractions
Explanation
The correct answer is: Frequency and intensity of contractions
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse needs to assess the frequency and intensity of the contractions to determine the stage of labor and whether the client is in active labor or pre-labor. This information is critical because it will help the nurse evaluate the progression of labor, guide decisions about pain management, and assess whether the delivery is imminent or if there is a need for more time for labor to progress.
The cervix is 3 cm dilated and 75% effaced, which indicates the client is in the early phase of labor or possibly active labor. Knowing the contraction pattern will help the nurse decide if the client needs immediate attention, such as preparing for delivery or further assessment of the labor process.
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
Gravidity and parity
While gravidity (the number of pregnancies) and parity (the number of live births) are important for assessing the client’s obstetric history, this information does not directly inform the immediate progression of labor. The most pressing concern at this moment is the contraction pattern to assess how far the client is in the labor process.
Time and amount of last oral intake
The time of last oral intake is important when preparing for potential anesthesia or an emergency C-section, but in this case, the contraction pattern is more critical. The focus at this moment should be on the progression of labor and whether the client is in active labor or not, as this will guide the urgency of the situation.
Date of last normal menstrual period
The last normal menstrual period (LNMP) is relevant for determining the estimated due date (EDD) or gestational age, but in this case, the client has arrived in labor. The most immediate concern is how far the client is into labor, not determining the EDD, especially since she has received no prenatal care.
Summary:
The most important information to obtain is the frequency and intensity of contractions (D), as this will help the nurse assess how far the client is in labor and the need for immediate interventions. The other options, while relevant in the broader context of care, do not directly address the most pressing concerns in this immediate labor scenario.
The practical nurse (PN) is discussing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) with the mother of a 7- year-old student newly diagnosed with the disorder. Which intervention should the PN suggest as most effective in managing the symptoms of ADHD
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Provide a structured daily routine
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Consult with a licensed kinesiologist.
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Institute a regimen of mega- vitamins.
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Eliminate dietary simple sugars.
Explanation
The correct answer is: Provide a structured daily routine.
Explanation:
Children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) benefit greatly from a structured and consistent daily routine. Structure helps reduce distractions and unpredictability, which can worsen symptoms such as inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity. A predictable schedule supports the child in understanding expectations and staying focused on tasks, whether at home or in school.
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
Consult with a licensed kinesiologist:
While physical activity can be helpful for children with ADHD, consulting a kinesiologist is not a primary or evidence-based intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. It is not considered a standard component of treatment.
Institute a regimen of mega-vitamins:
There is no strong clinical evidence supporting the use of mega-vitamin therapy for ADHD. Relying on such unproven methods may delay access to effective treatment options such as behavioral therapy and medication.
Eliminate dietary simple sugars:
Although some parents report behavioral changes in children after dietary adjustments, current research does not support sugar elimination as a consistently effective treatment for ADHD. It may be helpful in some individual cases but is not a primary or reliable intervention.
Summary:
The most effective intervention is to provide a structured daily routine (A), as it helps children with ADHD manage their symptoms and navigate daily activities with more success. The other options lack strong evidence or are not standard approaches to ADHD management.
A primigravida client who is 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at 0 station is requesting an epidural for pain relief. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider
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Cervical dilation of 5 cm with 90% effacement
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White blood cell count of 12,000/mm3
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Hemoglobin of 12 mg/dl and hematocrit of 38%
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A platelet count of 67,000/mm3
Explanation
The correct answer is: A platelet count of 67,000/mm³
Explanation:
A platelet count of 67,000/mm³ is critically low and poses a significant risk for complications with epidural anesthesia. Epidural placement requires puncturing the epidural space, and a low platelet count increases the risk of spinal epidural hematoma, which can lead to compression of the spinal cord and permanent neurological damage. The normal platelet range is 150,000–400,000/mm³, and most anesthesiologists require a minimum platelet count of 80,000–100,000/mm³ before safely administering an epidural. Because this client has thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/mm³), the healthcare provider must be informed immediately to determine alternative pain management strategies.
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
Cervical dilation of 5 cm with 90% effacement
This indicates that the client is in active labor, which is an appropriate stage for epidural placement. Epidurals are generally administered when the cervix is at least 4 cm dilated to ensure that labor is well-established. This finding does not require urgent reporting.
White blood cell count of 12,000/mm³
A WBC count of 12,000/mm³ is slightly elevated but normal in pregnancy and labor due to physiological leukocytosis. It does not indicate an infection or any contraindication for epidural administration. Therefore, it is not a critical finding that needs to be reported immediately.
Hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL and hematocrit of 38%
These values are within normal limits for pregnancy and do not pose any risk for epidural administration. They do not require immediate attention or reporting.
Summary:
The most critical assessment finding is a platelet count of 67,000/mm³ (D) because it significantly increases the risk of epidural hematoma, which can lead to spinal cord compression and permanent neurological damage. The other findings are within normal limits or do not affect the safety of epidural placement.
A client who is attending antepartum classes asks the nurse why her healthcare provider has prescribed iron tablets. The nurse's response is based on what knowledge
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Supplementary iron is more efficiently utilized during pregnancy
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It is difficult to consume 18 mg of additional iron by diet alone
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Iron absorption is decreased in the GI tract during pregnancy
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Iron is needed to prevent megaloblastic anemia in the last trimester
Explanation
The correct answer is: It is difficult to consume 18 mg of additional iron by diet alone
Explanation:
During pregnancy, the body requires more iron to support increased blood volume and fetal development. Iron supplementation is often prescribed because it is difficult for most women to meet the increased iron demands solely through diet. The recommended daily intake of iron during pregnancy is approximately 27 mg, which is higher than the usual nonpregnant requirement of 18 mg. While iron-rich foods can help, it is often challenging to consume enough iron through diet alone, making supplementation necessary.
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
Supplementary iron is more efficiently utilized during pregnancy
This statement is not accurate. Iron absorption does increase slightly during pregnancy to accommodate the growing demands of the body, but supplementary iron is not necessarily more efficiently utilized. Rather, supplementation compensates for the increased demand and the body's ability to absorb iron from food alone.
Iron absorption is decreased in the GI tract during pregnancy
Iron absorption can actually increase during pregnancy in response to the increased need for iron to support both maternal and fetal blood volume. The body adapts by increasing iron absorption from the gastrointestinal tract rather than decreasing it.
Iron is needed to prevent megaloblastic anemia in the last trimester
Megaloblastic anemia is caused by a folate deficiency, not an iron deficiency. While iron deficiency can lead to iron deficiency anemia, which is common during pregnancy, it does not cause megaloblastic anemia. Iron supplementation is primarily to prevent iron deficiency anemia, not megaloblastic anemia.
Summary:
The correct response is "It is difficult to consume 18 mg of additional iron by diet alone" (B) because it is challenging for most pregnant women to meet the increased iron requirements through food alone. Supplementation is often necessary to ensure adequate iron levels for both maternal and fetal health. The other options contain inaccuracies about how iron is utilized or absorbed during pregnancy.
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