Auditing (D215)

Auditing (D215)

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Free Auditing (D215) Questions

1.

A large client asks a CPA firm for consulting help with their quarterly sales and use tax reporting. The CPA firm specializes in audit and tax preparation and has not dealt with this type of work in the past but would like to add it. The firm decides to accept the job. Which step is required to maintain compliance with the general standards of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct

  • The CPA firm must send the CPAs to a continuing professional education course on sales and use tax reporting.

  • The CPA firm must be independent of the client to perform consulting services on sales and use tax reports.

  • The CPA firm must develop this line of work by adding additional clients who need assistance with sales and use tax reports.

  • The CPA firm must collect sufficient relevant data to complete sales and use tax reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. The CPA firm must send the CPAs to a continuing professional education course on sales and use tax reporting.

Explanation

The AICPA Code of Professional Conduct requires that professionals maintain competence in areas of work they take on. Since the firm is new to consulting on sales and use tax reporting, sending CPAs to a continuing education course will ensure they have the knowledge to handle the work effectively.

Why other options are wrong

B. The CPA firm must be independent of the client to perform consulting services on sales and use tax reports: Independence is important for audit services but is not necessarily a requirement for consulting work, such as in this case.

C. The CPA firm must develop this line of work by adding additional clients who need assistance with sales and use tax reports: Adding additional clients is not a requirement to maintain compliance with general standards; competence is key.

D. The CPA firm must collect sufficient relevant data to complete sales and use tax reports: While gathering data is essential for the job, the primary issue for compliance with the general standards is ensuring the firm has the necessary competence, which can be addressed by further education.


2.

A CPA is determining the extent of substantive procedures needed to test a client's sales. Sales are composed of 2,550 sales transactions in the last week of the fiscal year. In the first week of the new year, 2,750 sales transactions occurred. After examining all risks, the CPA has determined few substantive procedures are required. Which risk evaluation led the auditor to make this determination

  • Inherent risk is low.

  • Control risk is high.

  • Audit risk is high.

  • Detection risk is low

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Inherent risk is low.

Explanation

Inherent risk refers to the susceptibility of an account or transaction to misstatement, assuming no internal controls are in place. If the CPA has determined that few substantive procedures are required, this indicates that the inherent risk of material misstatement in the sales transactions is low. Low inherent risk implies that the transactions are not likely to have significant errors or misstatements, reducing the need for extensive testing.

Why other options are wrong

B. Control risk is high: High control risk would require more substantive testing, not fewer procedures.

C. Audit risk is high: High audit risk would lead to more testing, not fewer.

D. Detection risk is low: A low detection risk would imply that the auditor is confident in detecting material misstatements if they exist, but it does not explain why fewer substantive procedures are needed.


3.

How should substantive testing be performed if the risk of material misstatement is at the maximum level

  • Timing should be done at interim, and a larger sample size should be used.

  • Timing should be done at year-end, and a larger sample size should be used.

  • Timing should be done at interim, and a smaller sample size should be used.

  • Timing should be done at year-end, and a smaller sample size should be used.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Timing should be done at year-end, and a larger sample size should be used.

Explanation

When the risk of material misstatement is high, the auditor needs to perform more extensive substantive testing to ensure the financial statements are free from material misstatements. This typically involves testing at year-end (when transactions are complete) and using a larger sample size to increase the assurance provided by the tests.

Why other options are wrong

A. Timing should be done at interim, and a larger sample size should be used: Substantive testing is typically more effective when performed at year-end, as transactions are complete and finalized by then.

C. Timing should be done at interim, and a smaller sample size should be used: With maximum risk, a smaller sample size at interim would not provide sufficient assurance.

D. Timing should be done at year-end, and a smaller sample size should be used: A larger sample size is needed when the risk is high, not a smaller one.


4.

Auditors deem that a full physical item count of inventory is critical for a company. However, the company's management disagrees and performs cycle counts instead. Why does the audit team write a letter to the audit committee of the company regarding this issue

  • To advise of an incorrect calculation

  • To report other significant findings or issues

  • To disclose a disagreement with management

  • To present the business conditions affecting the company

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. To disclose a disagreement with management

Explanation:

When auditors disagree with management's approach, especially in a situation that could materially affect the accuracy of the financial statements, they are required to communicate this disagreement. A letter to the audit committee serves as a formal way to disclose and address the issue, ensuring that the committee is aware of the differing views and the potential impact on the audit.

Why other options are wrong

A. To advise of an incorrect calculation: The issue at hand is a disagreement regarding the method used for inventory counting, not an incorrect calculation.

B. To report other significant findings or issues: While this could be a significant issue, the main purpose is to communicate a specific disagreement with management’s method.

D. To present the business conditions affecting the company: This is not the primary purpose of the letter, which focuses on a specific disagreement related to the audit process.


5.

What is an outcome based upon the auditor's expectations

  • Larger sample sizes will be chosen.

  • Smaller sample sizes will be chosen.

  • A lower level of tolerable misstatement will be set.

  • A higher level of tolerable misstatement will be set.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Smaller sample sizes will be chosen.

Explanation

Since the auditor has established that both control risk and inherent risk are low, and based on past experience with this client, the auditor expects only a limited number of misstatements. This means there is a lower perceived risk of material misstatement. In such cases, the auditor can confidently reduce the sample size, because the likelihood of misstatements is considered low and the testing will still provide sufficient assurance.

Why other options are wrong

A. Larger sample sizes would be necessary if the perceived risk of misstatements were higher, but in this case, the risk is low.

C. A lower level of tolerable misstatement would be set if the auditor expected more significant misstatements or higher risk, but in this case, the risk is low, and the auditor can tolerate more misstatement.

D. A higher level of tolerable misstatement would not be consistent with a situation where the auditor expects few misstatements; the auditor would maintain a higher level of confidence in the testing with a higher tolerable misstatement.


6.

Why is the term practitioner used instead of auditor in terms of audit services

  • These services encompass more than just the audit of historical financial statements and internal controls

  • These services are limited to tax preparation and filing

  • These services are only for large corporations and not applicable to small businesses

  • These services focus solely on compliance with regulations

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. These services encompass more than just the audit of historical financial statements and internal controls

Explanation:

The term practitioner
is used instead of auditor because audit services extend beyond just financial statement audits. Practitioners perform a broader range of assurance and attestation services, including:

Reviews (providing limited assurance)

Agreed-upon procedures

Examinations of internal controls, compliance, and other subject matter

The term "auditor"
specifically refers to professionals conducting financial statement audits, while "practitioner" is a broader term covering all assurance-related engagements.

Why other options are wrong:

B. These services are limited to tax preparation and filing – Assurance services go beyond tax services, which do not fall under audit services.

C. These services are only for large corporations and not applicable to small businesses – Audit and assurance services apply to entities of all sizes, including small businesses and nonprofits.

D. These services focus solely on compliance with regulations – While compliance audits exist, assurance services cover a wider scope beyond just regulatory compliance.


7.

An accounting firm is conducting the annual audit of a bookstore and has determined that there were some misstatements in accounts receivable due to human error. The bookstore feels that it is unnecessary to make corrections to these errors at this time since they will eventually be reversed. Under which circumstance should an auditor be inclined to issue a modified opinion

  • Misstatements are immaterial but not confined to accounts receivable.

  • Accounts receivable represents a significant portion of current assets.

  • The bookstore agrees to correct the misstatements in the current year.

  • Disclosures are made regarding the insignificant errors.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

 A. Misstatements are immaterial but not confined to accounts receivable.

Explanation:

A modified opinion is warranted when financial statements contain material misstatements or there is insufficient audit evidence. Even if individual misstatements in accounts receivable are immaterial, their impact may become material if they extend beyond accounts receivable and affect multiple accounts.

Why other options are wrong

B. Accounts receivable represents a significant portion of current assets: While this is relevant, the key factor is whether the misstatements are material, not just the size of the account.

C. The bookstore agrees to correct the misstatements in the current year: If the errors are corrected, there is no longer a need for a modified opinion.

D. Disclosures are made regarding the insignificant errors: Proper disclosure does not automatically necessitate a modified opinion if the errors are truly insignificant.


8.

Which extent of substantive audit procedures is warranted when auditing sales with records totaling $75 million are in a reliable electronic format and the internal control risk of the sales cycle is low

  • Use of audit data analytics (ADA) should be used because evidence is available in this form.

  • Audit sampling of a small percentage should be used due to the high account balance.

  • Test 100% of the transactions because the population of transactions is large.

  • Detection risk is low, and a small percentage of transactions should be tested.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Use of audit data analytics (ADA) should be used because evidence is available in this form.

Explanation:

When transaction data is available in a reliable electronic format, audit data analytics (ADA) is an efficient and effective tool for analyzing large datasets. ADA can be used to identify trends, anomalies, and high-risk transactions, reducing the need for traditional sampling while increasing the overall coverage of the audit. Since internal control risk is low, reliance on electronic data and analytics is appropriate.

Why other options are wrong

B. Audit sampling of a small percentage should be used due to the high account balance: The decision to use sampling depends on risk assessment and data availability, not just the size of the account balance. ADA allows for broader coverage and is more effective in this scenario.

C. Test 100% of the transactions because the population of transactions is large: Testing every transaction is unnecessary and inefficient when electronic tools can analyze the dataset effectively. Full testing is usually reserved for situations where there is a high risk of material misstatement.

D. Detection risk is low, and a small percentage of transactions should be tested: A low detection risk typically requires more extensive substantive procedures, and with reliable electronic records, ADA is a better approach than traditional small-sample testing.


9.

Which method of risk response should be taken when an auditor finds misappropriations by management when conducting tests of controls

  • Give less consideration to the possibility of fraud risk

  • Verify social reputations of the staff to mitigate fraud

  • Give more consideration of opportunities for managerial fraud

  • Perform tests on a planned rather than surprise basis to mitigate fraud risk

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Give more consideration of opportunities for managerial fraud

Explanation

When an auditor finds misappropriations by management, this signals a higher risk of fraudulent activities. The auditor should give more consideration to the opportunities for managerial fraud, including evaluating areas where management could override controls. This is a direct response to the identified risks of fraud within the organization, ensuring that the auditor is aware of the potential for further fraudulent activity and is adequately testing for it.

Why other options are wrong

A. Give less consideration to the possibility of fraud risk: If misappropriations by management have been found, the auditor should increase, not decrease, consideration of fraud risk.

B. Verify social reputations of the staff to mitigate fraud: While understanding staff behavior is useful, this does not directly mitigate the risk of fraud by management, who has higher authority and control.

D. Perform tests on a planned rather than surprise basis to mitigate fraud risk: Surprise testing is often used to detect fraud, so moving to a planned approach would decrease the likelihood of detecting ongoing fraudulent activity.


10.

The threat that a CPA will not appropriately evaluate the results of a previous judgment made by, or service performed by, an individual in the member's firm, and that the CPA will rely on that work in forming a judgment as part of an engagement

  • Familiarity threat

  • Advocacy threat

  • Adverse interest threat

  • Self-review threat

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. Self-review threat

Explanation:

A self-review threat occurs when a CPA audits or evaluates their own previous work or that of their firm. This can compromise objectivity, as the CPA may be less likely to identify errors or misstatements in their own work.

Why other options are wrong

A. Familiarity threat: This arises when a CPA has a close relationship with a client, which may lead to reduced professional skepticism, but it is not related to reviewing prior work.

B. Advocacy threat: This occurs when a CPA actively promotes or defends a client’s position, which could impair independence, but it is not related to reviewing past judgments.

C. Adverse interest threat: This arises when a CPA and a client are in opposition, such as in a legal dispute, which is not relevant to self-review situations.


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