NU 335 Baton Rouge College Community
Access The Exact Questions for NU 335 Baton Rouge College Community
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for NU 335 Baton Rouge College Community on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free NU 335 Baton Rouge College Community Questions
A patient is admitted with symptoms of edema, bradycardia, and lethargy. The nurse understands based on these symptoms which of the following can cause myxedema coma?
-
Untreated hypothyroidism
-
Uncontrolled diabetes
-
End-stage Graves’ disease
-
Overdose of propylthiouracil
Explanation
Correct answer: A. Untreated hypothyroidism
Myxedema coma is a life-threatening complication of severe, untreated hypothyroidism. It occurs when thyroid hormone levels become extremely low, leading to decreased metabolic activity, hypothermia, bradycardia, edema, lethargy, and altered mental status. The condition represents the most severe form of hypothyroidism and requires immediate treatment with IV thyroid hormone and supportive care.
The nurse is caring for a patient post-operative day 1 following a lobectomy. After assessing the patient’s chest tube that is attached to suction, which finding would the nurse address immediately to the health care provider?
-
300 mL of bright red blood in the collection chamber over 1 hour
-
Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site
-
Intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber
-
Lack of tidaling in the water-seal chamber
Explanation
Correct answer: A. 300 mL of bright red blood in the collection chamber over 1 hour
After thoracic surgery such as a lobectomy, chest tubes are used to drain blood and air from the pleural space. While some drainage is expected initially, large amounts of bright red blood indicate possible hemorrhage. Drainage exceeding 100–200 mL per hour, especially if it is bright red and continuous, suggests active bleeding and requires immediate notification of the health care provider.
The other findings are less urgent:
Subcutaneous emphysema may occur from air leakage and should be monitored but is not always emergent.
Intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber can be normal, especially with coughing or expiration.
Tidaling may decrease or stop as the lung re-expands or if suction is applied.
Therefore, rapid bright-red drainage is the most concerning finding and requires immediate intervention.
While monitoring a patient admitted for a Coronary Artery Bypass Surgery (CABG), the nurse notes that the drainage in the chest tube collection container has remained at 1150 mL over the last eight hours. What actions by the nurse are appropriate to resolve this issue? Select all that apply.
-
Flush the drainage system.
-
Instruct the patient to turn, cough, and breathe.
-
Prepare for intubation.
-
Auscultate lung sounds.
-
Reposition the patient.
Explanation
Correct answers: B. Instruct the patient to turn, cough, deep breathe, D. Auscultate lung sounds, E. Reposition the patient
When chest tube drainage suddenly stops or remains unchanged for several hours after CABG, it may indicate clot formation, obstruction in the tubing, or lung re-expansion. The nurse should first perform nursing interventions that promote drainage and assess the patient.
Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe can help mobilize secretions and improve drainage. Repositioning the patient can also help relieve kinks in the tubing and allow gravity to assist drainage. The nurse should auscultate lung sounds to assess for complications such as fluid accumulation, pneumothorax, or decreased ventilation.
Flushing the drainage system is not performed routinely by nurses because it may increase intrathoracic pressure and cause injury. Preparing for intubation is unnecessary unless the patient shows severe respiratory compromise, which is not indicated in this scenario.
A nurse received notification that the cardio-thoracic surgeon will be removing the chest tube from the patient post–Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG). Which actions will the nurse perform in preparation for the procedure? Select all that apply.
-
Administer pain medications.
-
Instruct patients about holding their breath or bearing down during removal.
-
Gather petroleum gauze, dry sterile gauze and tape.
-
Obtain consent from the patient.
-
Order a chest X-ray prior to the procedure.
Explanation
Correct answers: A. Administer pain medications, B. Instruct patients about holding their breath or bearing down during removal, C. Gather petroleum gauze, dry sterile gauze and tape
Before chest tube removal, the nurse should administer pain medication because removal can be uncomfortable. The nurse should also teach the patient to hold their breath or perform the Valsalva maneuver (bear down) during removal. This action increases intrathoracic pressure and prevents air from entering the pleural space, reducing the risk of pneumothorax.
The nurse should also prepare the necessary sterile supplies, including petroleum (occlusive) gauze, dry sterile gauze, and tape to immediately seal the site after the tube is removed.
Obtaining consent is the physician’s responsibility, and a chest X-ray is usually ordered after removal to check for pneumothorax, not before the procedure.
A nurse is teaching a patient about the adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test. The nurse should explain that the purpose of the test is to detect which disorders?
-
Diabetes insipidus
-
Addison's disease
-
Pheochromocytoma
-
Hyperthyroidism
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
B. Addison's disease
The ACTH stimulation test evaluates how well the adrenal cortex responds to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). During the test, synthetic ACTH is administered and cortisol levels are measured before and after administration.
In a healthy adrenal gland, ACTH stimulation causes cortisol levels to rise. If cortisol levels fail to increase appropriately, it indicates adrenal insufficiency, most commonly Addison's disease.
Addison's disease occurs when the adrenal glands cannot produce adequate cortisol, often due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex. Therefore, the ACTH stimulation test is commonly used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency and differentiate primary adrenal failure from secondary causes.
When evaluating the laboratory findings of a patient with increased secretion of the anterior pituitary hormones, the nurse would expect which laboratory finding?
-
An increase in urinary free cortisol.
-
Decreased serum thyroxine levels.
-
Low urinary excretion of catecholamines.
-
Elevated antidiuretic hormone levels.
Explanation
Correct answer: A. An increase in urinary free cortisol
The anterior pituitary gland secretes several hormones, including adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). When anterior pituitary secretion is increased, ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce more cortisol. As cortisol levels rise in the bloodstream, excess cortisol is excreted in the urine.
Therefore, laboratory testing would show increased urinary free cortisol, which is commonly used as a diagnostic marker for conditions involving excess ACTH production, such as Cushing disease caused by an anterior pituitary tumor.
Why the other options are incorrect:
The other options are not associated with increased anterior pituitary hormone secretion. Decreased thyroxine suggests hypothyroidism, catecholamines are produced by the adrenal medulla, and antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary, not the anterior pituitary.
A patient with facial burns suddenly becomes restless with stridor. What is the nurse's priority action?
-
Administer IV morphine
-
Call for stat airway support
-
Elevate the HOB
-
Obtain ABG
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Call for stat airway support.
Stridor in a patient with facial burns is a medical emergency indicating impending upper airway obstruction due to inhalation injury and edema. The airway is the absolute priority — the nurse must immediately call for stat airway support, as the patient may require emergency intubation or surgical airway management before complete obstruction occurs. Airway edema from burns can progress extremely rapidly, making delayed action life-threatening. Morphine, HOB elevation, and ABG are all secondary interventions that must wait until the airway is secured.
A patient is diagnosed with a brain abscess and is being prepared for treatment. The nurse is reviewing the patient's medical history. Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to the development of a brain abscess in this patient?
-
History of chronic hypertension.
-
History of migraines.
-
Recent tick removal.
-
Recent head trauma with a skull fracture.
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Recent head trauma with a skull fracture.
A skull fracture creates a direct pathway for bacteria to enter the brain, making it the most likely contributing factor to brain abscess formation. Brain abscesses typically arise from contiguous spread of infection, hematogenous spread, or direct inoculation — skull fractures represent direct inoculation. Chronic hypertension and migraines are not associated with brain abscess development. While tick bites can transmit certain infections, a recent tick removal without confirmed disease is not as directly causative as a skull fracture.
A patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
-
Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy.
-
Prepare patient for immediate craniotomy.
-
Type and cross-match for blood transfusion.
-
Administer IV furosemide.
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Prepare patient for immediate craniotomy.
An epidural hematoma is a neurosurgical emergency. It typically results from arterial bleeding (often from the middle meningeal artery) causing rapid accumulation of blood between the skull and dura mater. The classic presentation is a lucid interval followed by rapid neurological deterioration. Immediate surgical evacuation via craniotomy is required to relieve pressure and prevent brain herniation and death. High-dose barbiturates are used for refractory intracranial hypertension, not as a primary intervention. Blood transfusion and furosemide do not address the underlying hematoma.
The nurse is assessing a patient with a burn injury using the "rule of nines." Which information will this assessment contribute to future care planning?
-
Rehabilitation needs
-
Type of intravenous fluids required
-
Respiratory needs
-
Amount of body surface area burned
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Amount of body surface area burned.
The "rule of nines" is a standardized tool used to estimate the total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burns. It divides the body into sections each representing 9% (or multiples of 9%) of the body surface. This calculation is critical for care planning because the TBSA burned directly guides fluid resuscitation calculations (such as the Parkland formula), determines severity, and informs decisions about wound management and transfer to a burn center. While rehabilitation, IV fluid type, and respiratory needs are all important, they are determined by other assessments — the rule of nines specifically quantifies the extent of the burn.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .