NU335 Hamodynamics Spring 2026 at Baton Rouge Community College

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Ace Your Test with NU335 Hamodynamics Spring 2026 at Baton Rouge Community College Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free NU335 Hamodynamics Spring 2026 at Baton Rouge Community College Questions

1.

All of the following patients require intravenous push (IVP) medications. The nurse would administer which patient's medication first?

  • A) Scheduled dose of IVP furosemide for a patient displaying signs of shortness of breath
  • B) PRN IVP diphenhydramine for a patient complaining of itching
  • C) PRN IVP morphine for a patient complaining of moderate pain
  • D) Scheduled dose of IVP digoxin for a patient in atrial fibrillation

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Scheduled dose of IVP furosemide for a patient displaying signs of shortness of breath
Explanation:
The patient exhibiting signs of shortness of breath is at immediate risk for respiratory distress or even respiratory failure, especially if the shortness of breath is due to fluid overload (e.g., congestive heart failure). Furosemide is a diuretic, which helps reduce fluid volume and ease the patient’s breathing. Administering IVP furosemide first is crucial to alleviate the shortness of breath and prevent further complications.
2.

A nurse is participating in a Code Blue. Which actions are important to maintain therapeutic communication during the code? Select all that apply.

  • A) Announce interventions given
  • B) Repeat orders x 3
  • C) Control tone of voice
  • D) Speak clearly
  • E) Use closed-loop communication

Explanation

Correct Answers:
A. Announce interventions given
C. Control tone of voice
D. Speak clearly
E. Use closed-loop communication

Explanation:
A. Announce interventions given
It is essential to announce interventions clearly to keep everyone on the team informed of actions taken. This ensures that all team members are aware of what has been done and prevents duplication of efforts.
C. Control tone of voice
In a high-stress situation like a Code Blue, controlling the tone of voice helps maintain a calm, composed atmosphere. This prevents panic and allows the team to focus on providing care effectively.
D. Speak clearly
Speaking clearly is critical during a Code Blue. Miscommunication can lead to errors in patient care, so every instruction and intervention must be articulated clearly to ensure understanding by the entire team.
E. Use closed-loop communication
Closed-loop communication is essential for ensuring accuracy in conveying and understanding orders and information. This method involves repeating the information back to the person who gave the order, confirming it, and ensuring it is understood by all team members.
3.

The nurse is monitoring the Pulmonary Artery (PA) catheter and notes a central venous pressure (CVP) reading of 15 mmHg. The nurse anticipates administering the patient which medication?

  • A) Ativan 1 mg intravenous bolus now
  • B) Albumin 20% supplied in 50 ml now
  • C) Furosemide 40 mg intravenous bolus now
  • D) Digoxin 0.25 mg intravenous bolus now

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Furosemide 40 mg intravenous bolus now
Explanation
A CVP reading of 15 mmHg is elevated, which indicates increased right heart preload, potentially due to fluid overload. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is used to treat fluid overload by promoting diuresis, thus decreasing the volume of circulating blood, reducing venous pressure, and improving cardiac function. It is the most appropriate choice to address the elevated CVP and reduce the risk of complications like pulmonary edema.
4.

The nurse admits a patient to ICU with a gastrointestinal bleed with a week-long history of vomiting and diarrhea. The patient has a Pulmonary Artery (PA) catheter in place. A fluid bolus is initiated to treat which underlying issue?

  • A) Decreased preload
  • B) Decreased afterload
  • C) Increased preload
  • D) Increased afterload

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Decreased preload
Explanation:
In this scenario, the patient has been experiencing vomiting and diarrhea for a week, which can lead to significant fluid loss and result in decreased preload, meaning there is insufficient circulating blood volume returning to the heart. The PA catheter can provide real-time data on the patient’s hemodynamic status, and a fluid bolus is typically used to increase blood volume, improving venous return (preload) to the heart. This helps stabilize the patient’s circulation and improve perfusion.
5.

What is the rhythm name and the rate, according to the attached 6 second strip?

  • A Supraventricular Tachycardia, 195 bpm
  • B Sinus Tachycardia, 150 bpm
  • C Ventricular Tachycardia, 210 bpm
  • D Atrial fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular Response, 210 bpm

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Supraventricular Tachycardia, 195 bpm
Explanation
The rhythm displayed is Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT), characterized by a rapid and regular rhythm, originating from above the ventricles (either from the atria or AV node). The heart rate is approximately 195 bpm, which is typical for SVT. The QRS complexes are narrow, indicating that the rhythm is supraventricular and not originating from the ventricles. Additionally, there are no visible P waves, which is a common characteristic of SVT as the atrial activity is often obscured by the rapid ventricular response.
6.

The healthcare provider orders positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to be added to the settings of a mechanically ventilated patient. Which is the most important information for the nurse to obtain when monitoring for the effectiveness of this intervention?

  • A) Oxygen saturation
  • B) Tidal volume
  • C) Respiratory rate
  • D) Arterial blood pressure

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Oxygen saturation
Explanation:
PEEP is used to prevent the collapse of alveoli at the end of exhalation, improving oxygenation. The most important parameter to monitor for the effectiveness of PEEP is oxygen saturation (SpO2). An increase in oxygen saturation indicates improved oxygenation, which is the primary goal of applying PEEP. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess if PEEP is effectively enhancing gas exchange and maintaining adequate oxygen levels.
7.

Following surgery, a patient's central venous pressure (CVP) monitor indicates low pressures. Which action will the nurse anticipate taking?

  • A) Increase the IV fluid infusion rate.
  • B) Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 45 degrees.
  • C) Administer IV diuretic medications.
  • D) Document the CVP and continue to monitor.

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Increase the IV fluid infusion rate.
Explanation:
A low CVP typically indicates hypovolemia or a low circulating blood volume, which can occur after surgery due to blood loss, fluid shifts, or inadequate fluid intake. The primary action the nurse would anticipate is to increase the IV fluid infusion rate to restore blood volume and improve venous return to the heart. This will help raise the CVP to an appropriate level, indicating improved blood circulation and perfusion.
8.

The ACLS certified nurse determines a patient is in PEA. CPR is in progress. Three minutes after epinephrine 1mg is given, PEA continues. Which action should the nurse do next?

  • A) Initiate transcutaneous pacing
  • B) Administer atropine 1mg IVP
  • C) Give epinephrine 1mg IVP
  • D) Start a dopamine IV 2-10 mcg/kg/min

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Give epinephrine 1mg IVP
Explanation:
In cases of pulseless electrical activity (PEA), the primary treatment is continued high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine 1 mg IVP every 3-5 minutes. Epinephrine helps to increase myocardial and cerebral perfusion by stimulating alpha and beta receptors. Since PEA persists after the first dose of epinephrine, the nurse should continue to administer another dose of epinephrine 1mg IVP and follow ACLS guidelines for ongoing resuscitation.
9.

What does the nurse interpret an intravenous drug incompatibility to mean prior to administering an intravenous push medication?

  • A) Diluting a drug will prevent incompatibility
  • B) Give medication as directed by the health care provider regardless of incompatibility
  • C) Mixing incompatible drugs will cause a reaction
  • D) Receive new order from the health care provider to give medication by another route

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Mixing incompatible drugs will cause a reaction
Explanation
Intravenous drug incompatibility occurs when two or more drugs, when mixed together in the same intravenous line or syringe, interact in a way that causes a chemical or physical reaction. This can lead to precipitation, decreased effectiveness, or even toxicity. The nurse must recognize that mixing incompatible drugs can lead to harmful consequences, and should never administer them together without ensuring they are compatible.
10.

A patient is in pulseless arrest and the EKG shows asystole. What is the drug used in ACLS for this rhythm?

  • A) Adenosine 6 mg
  • B) Amiodarone 300 mg
  • C) Atropine 1 mg
  • D) Epinephrine 1 mg

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Epinephrine 1 mg
Explanation:
In cases of asystole, which is a form of pulseless arrest and a non-shockable rhythm, epinephrine 1 mg is the first-line drug recommended by the ACLS protocol. Epinephrine is a vasopressor that helps to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during CPR, improving the chances of restoring a perfusing rhythm. It is administered every 3-5 minutes during the resuscitation process if the patient remains in asystole or PEA (pulseless electrical activity).

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