NU335 Hamodynamics Spring 2026 at Baton Rouge Community College

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Free NU335 Hamodynamics Spring 2026 at Baton Rouge Community College Questions

1.

The nurse reviews the mixed venous sample from the pulmonary artery catheter and notes the SvO2 to be 70%. The nurse understands the meaning of this value to be which of the following?

  • Balanced O2 supply and demand.
  • Hypoxic respiratory failure.
  • Decreased O2 supply and increased demand.
  • Hypercapnic respiratory failure.

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Balanced O2 supply and demand.
Explanation:
A mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) of 70% is within the normal range, which typically lies between 60-80%. This indicates that the oxygen supply and demand are balanced. The body is able to provide enough oxygen to meet the metabolic needs of tissues, and the tissues are extracting an appropriate amount of oxygen from the blood.
2.

What is the rhythm name and the rate, according to the attached 6 second strip?

  • A Supraventricular Tachycardia, 195 bpm
  • B Sinus Tachycardia, 150 bpm
  • C Ventricular Tachycardia, 210 bpm
  • D Atrial fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular Response, 210 bpm

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Supraventricular Tachycardia, 195 bpm
Explanation
The rhythm displayed is Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT), characterized by a rapid and regular rhythm, originating from above the ventricles (either from the atria or AV node). The heart rate is approximately 195 bpm, which is typical for SVT. The QRS complexes are narrow, indicating that the rhythm is supraventricular and not originating from the ventricles. Additionally, there are no visible P waves, which is a common characteristic of SVT as the atrial activity is often obscured by the rapid ventricular response.
3.

Amiodarone 300 mg IV push would be administered for which rhythm in the ACLS algorithms?

  • Pulseless VT
  • Symptomatic bradycardia
  • Asystole
  • Stable SVT

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Pulseless VT
Explanation:
Amiodarone 300 mg IV push is indicated in the ACLS algorithm for pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) and ventricular fibrillation (VF) after the initial shock attempts. It is used to stabilize the arrhythmia and improve the chance of successful defibrillation. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic that helps to suppress abnormal electrical impulses in the heart and is given as a 300 mg IV push in the case of pulseless VT or VF. The dose can be followed by a second dose of 150 mg if needed.
4.

Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is ordered for a mechanically ventilated patient. The nurse understands that PEEP serves which purpose?

  • Decrease the work of breathing
  • Decrease the functional residual capacity
  • Increase tidal volume
  • Improve oxygenation

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Improve oxygenation
Explanation:
PEEP is a setting on the ventilator that applies positive pressure to the airway during exhalation, preventing the collapse of the alveoli and helping to maintain adequate functional residual capacity (FRC). By keeping the alveoli open, PEEP improves the overall oxygenation by increasing the surface area available for gas exchange and improving ventilation-perfusion matching. This helps the patient to maintain higher oxygen levels in the blood, especially in conditions such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
5.

The nurse interprets the patient's 6-second strip as which rhythm? See attachment.

  • A Atrial fibrillation
  • B Normal sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions (PACs)
  • C Ventricular Fibrillation
  • D Atrial flutter

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Atrial flutter
Explanation:
The rhythm on the strip shows a regular, rapid rhythm with sawtooth-shaped P waves, which is characteristic of atrial flutter. In atrial flutter, the atria contract very rapidly, often at rates between 250-350 beats per minute, but the ventricular response is typically slower due to a block at the AV node. The hallmark of atrial flutter is the presence of sawtooth waves in the P wave portion of the EKG, which is consistent with what is seen in this strip.
6.

The ICU nurse identifies asystole on the patient's monitor. What is the initial action taken by the nurse?

  • Administer Epinephrine 1 mg IVP per ACLS protocol
  • Prepare for immediate intubation
  • Assess the rhythm in more than one lead before treating
  • Administer Atropine 0.5 mg bolus per ACLS protocol

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Assess the rhythm in more than one lead before treating
Explanation:
The first step when asystole is identified is to ensure the accuracy of the rhythm. Asystole should be confirmed in more than one lead, as it is a life-threatening rhythm. Inaccurate leads or equipment malfunction could mistakenly show asystole. Once confirmed, the appropriate interventions can be initiated according to the ACLS protocol.
7.

Which assessment data obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with a left radial arterial line indicates a need for the nurse to take action?

  • The left hand is cooler than the right hand.
  • The mean arterial pressure is 75 mm Hg.
  • The system is delivering 3 ml of flush solution per hour.
  • The flush bag and tubing were last changed 2 days previously.

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. The left hand is cooler than the right hand.
Explanation
The cooler left hand compared to the right hand suggests impaired circulation in the left arm, which could indicate that the arterial line is compromising blood flow to the distal extremity. This can be a sign of possible occlusion or kinking of the arterial line, or thrombus formation, all of which could reduce blood flow to the hand and cause ischemia. The nurse should take immediate action to assess the line for patency, check for possible complications, and ensure proper blood flow.
8.

A cardiac arrest patient has been resuscitated and immediately transferred to ICU. What is the priority assessment by the ICU nurse for the best outcome?

  • Assess if patient can follow commands
  • Assess for signs of chest pain
  • Auscultate bilateral breath sounds
  • Assess skin for signs of shock

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds
Explanation:
After resuscitation, it is critical to assess for adequate ventilation and oxygenation. The nurse should immediately auscultate bilateral breath sounds to ensure that the patient has proper lung expansion and that the endotracheal tube is in the correct position. This assessment helps detect potential issues such as pneumothorax, airway obstruction, or intubation malposition, which are urgent concerns that can affect the patient's oxygenation and overall stability.
9.

The nurse is caring for a patient following endotracheal tube extubation 10 minutes ago. Which of the following would the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

  • Stridor
  • Sore throat
  • Oral secretions
  • Hoarseness

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Stridor
Explanation:
Stridor is a high-pitched wheezing sound that occurs due to upper airway obstruction or laryngeal edema, which can be a complication following endotracheal tube extubation. Stridor indicates that the airway may be partially obstructed, and it requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider to ensure that the airway is not compromised and that the patient does not experience respiratory distress. This may require supplemental oxygen, reintubation, or other interventions to ensure proper airflow and prevent further complications.
10.

A nurse entering a patient's room assesses the patient to be non-responsive. The cardiac rhythm looks to be normal sinus rhythm but the nurse does not feel a pulse. What is the correct term for this rhythm?

  • Ventricular tachycardia
  • Pulseless electrical activity
  • Sudden cardiac death
  • Premature ventricular contractions (PVC)

Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Pulseless electrical activity
Explanation
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is a condition in which the heart's electrical rhythm appears normal (such as normal sinus rhythm) on the monitor, but the mechanical function of the heart fails to generate a pulse. This condition occurs when there is electrical activity but no effective contraction of the heart muscle, resulting in the absence of a detectable pulse despite a normal rhythm on the ECG.

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