ATI Custom NUR 2610 Exam 4 Version 1
Access The Exact Questions for ATI Custom NUR 2610 Exam 4 Version 1
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for ATI Custom NUR 2610 Exam 4 Version 1 on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Ace Your Test with ATI Custom NUR 2610 Exam 4 Version 1 Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set
Free ATI Custom NUR 2610 Exam 4 Version 1 Questions
Nurses' Notes: Client admitted to medical-surgical floor from the emergency department (ED). Client has a history of HIV, first diagnosed 15 years ago, that has recently progressed to AIDS. Client presents with headache, diarrhea, night sweats, and weight loss for approximately 1 week.
AIDS. Drag 1 condition and 1 client finding to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The client is at highest risk for developing [Conditions] due to their [Findings].
Condition options: Infection, Cardiac dysrhythmias, Hypokalemia, Impaired gas exchange, Wasting syndrome Finding options: Diarrhea, CD4-T-cell count, Respiratory findings, Oxygen saturation, Potassium level
-
Infection
-
Cardiac dysrhythmias
-
Hypokalemia
-
Impaired gas exchange
-
Wasting syndrome
-
Diarrhea
-
CD4-T-cell count
-
Respiratory findings
-
Oxygen saturation
-
Potassium level
Explanation
Correct Answer: The client is at highest risk for developing Infection due to their CD4-T-cell count. Progression from HIV to AIDS is defined by significant immune system deterioration, most notably a severely diminished CD4-T-cell count. Since CD4-T-cells are essential for coordinating the body's immune response against pathogens, a low count leaves the client highly vulnerable to opportunistic infections. Given this client's diagnosis of AIDS, the CD4-T-cell count is the key finding that places them at the greatest risk, making infection the priority condition to anticipate and monitor for.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Cardiac dysrhythmias paired with potassium level does not fit, since although diarrhea can affect potassium balance, this client's overall clinical picture (progression to AIDS, headache, night sweats, weight loss) points most urgently toward immune compromise and infection risk rather than a cardiac electrolyte problem. Hypokalemia paired with diarrhea does not fit as the highest priority, since while diarrhea can contribute to electrolyte loss, this is not the most life-threatening risk for a client with a severely weakened immune system from AIDS. Impaired gas exchange paired with respiratory findings or oxygen saturation does not fit, since no respiratory symptoms or abnormal oxygenation findings are described in the nurses' notes. Wasting syndrome paired with diarrhea could be considered given the client's weight loss and diarrhea, but infection remains the higher and more immediate priority risk given the client's profound immunosuppression from AIDS, as untreated infection can rapidly become life-threatening.
A nurse in the emergency room is caring for a client who presents with chest pain. Which of the following orders should the nurse implement FIRST?
-
Obtain a blood sample.
-
Insert the IV catheter.
-
Initiate oxygen therapy.
-
Attach the leads for a 12-lead ECG.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Attach the leads for a 12-lead ECG.
For a client presenting with chest pain, obtaining a 12-lead ECG as quickly as possible is the priority action because it allows the nurse and provider to rapidly identify signs of myocardial ischemia or infarction, guiding immediate treatment decisions. Current practice standards emphasize obtaining an ECG within minutes of arrival for any client with chest pain.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Obtain a blood sample — Lab work, such as cardiac enzymes, is important but takes longer to result and does not provide the immediate diagnostic information the ECG does. B. Insert the IV catheter — Establishing IV access is important for future treatment but is not as immediately diagnostic as identifying cardiac changes on the ECG. C. Initiate oxygen therapy — Oxygen may be indicated if the client is hypoxic, but it is not the first priority over identifying the cause of the chest pain through the ECG.
A nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory report of arterial blood gas (ABG) findings: pH 7.28, HCO3- 18 mEq/L, and PaCO2 36 mm Hg. Which of the following conditions should the nurse anticipate when interpreting these findings?
-
Metabolic alkalosis
-
Respiratory acidosis
-
Respiratory alkalosis
-
Metabolic acidosis
Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Metabolic acidosis. The client's pH is below normal, indicating acidosis, and the bicarbonate level is also below normal, showing that the primary disturbance is metabolic in nature. The PaCO2 remains within normal limits, indicating that respiratory compensation has not yet fully occurred, confirming that the underlying problem is a metabolic acidosis.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Metabolic alkalosis — This would present with an elevated pH and elevated bicarbonate, not the low pH and low bicarbonate seen in this client's values. B. Respiratory acidosis — This would present with a low pH and elevated PaCO2, but this client's PaCO2 is within normal range, pointing away from a respiratory cause. C. Respiratory alkalosis — This would present with an elevated pH and decreased PaCO2, which does not match this client's low pH and normal PaCO2.
A client develops chills and fever within 20 minutes of starting a transfusion. What is the nurse's FIRST action?
-
Administer antipyretic medication and reassess.
-
Stop the transfusion and disconnect the tubing.
-
Slow the transfusion rate and notify the provider.
-
Check the client's blood group again.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Stop the transfusion and disconnect the tubing. Chills and fever shortly after starting a blood transfusion are signs of a possible transfusion reaction, which can quickly become life-threatening. The nurse's first priority is to stop the transfusion immediately and disconnect the tubing from the client to prevent any further infusion of blood product, then follow up with maintaining IV access with normal saline and notifying the provider.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Administer antipyretic medication and reassess — Treating the fever without stopping the transfusion first would allow continued exposure to the potentially harmful blood product, delaying the priority safety action. C. Slow the transfusion rate and notify the provider — Slowing the rate still allows the transfusion to continue, which is unsafe when a reaction is suspected; the transfusion must be stopped completely. D. Check the client's blood group again — While verifying blood compatibility may be part of the follow-up investigation, it is not the first action; stopping the transfusion to protect the client takes priority.
Nurse's Notes: 0900 — Client reports fatigue and generalized weakness for the past two months. Family history of chronic illness noted. Skin pale; no visible abnormalities noted in the physical inspection. 1300 — Client expresses concern about recent weight loss despite no major changes in dietary patterns. Appointment made for diagnostic follow-up.
Vital Signs: Temperature 37°C (98.6°F) stable. Heart Rate 92–95/min. Respiratory Rate 18–20/min. Blood Pressure 125/80–130/82 mmHg. Oxygen Saturation 98–99%.
Laboratory Results: Hgb 11.2–11.0 g/dL (low; reference 13–17 g/dL). WBC 10,000–10,500 mcL (normal). Platelet 150,000–152,000 mcL (normal).
Preventative strategies for reducing the risk of common cancers include _____, _____, and _____.
-
Maintaining a healthy weight
-
Avoiding UV light completely
-
Excessive fitness routines
-
Avoiding tobacco use
-
Increasing red meat intake
-
Regular cancer screenings
Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Maintaining a healthy weight, D. Avoiding tobacco use, and F. Regular cancer screenings.
A. Maintaining a healthy weight — Obesity is a known risk factor for multiple cancers including breast, colon, and endometrial cancer. Maintaining a healthy weight significantly reduces this risk.
D. Avoiding tobacco use — Tobacco is one of the leading preventable causes of cancer, most notably lung, oral, esophageal, and bladder cancers. Avoidance is a primary prevention strategy.
F. Regular cancer screenings — Early detection through screenings such as mammograms, colonoscopies, and Pap smears allows identification of precancerous or early-stage cancers when treatment is most effective.
Why other options are incorrect:
B. Avoiding UV light completely is an overstatement; the recommendation is to limit UV exposure and use sunscreen, not avoid it entirely.
C. Excessive fitness routines are not preventative and can cause harm; moderate regular physical activity is what is recommended.
E. Increasing red meat intake is associated with an increased risk of colorectal cancer and is not a preventative strategy.
A client is at risk for thrombosis and is prescribed an antiplatelet medication. What is the primary action of antiplatelet medications?
-
To activate plasminogen into plasmin
-
To inhibit platelet aggregation on damaged endothelial surfaces
-
To increase the clearance of thrombocytes from the bloodstream
-
To dissolve existing blood clots
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) To inhibit platelet aggregation on damaged endothelial surfaces.
Antiplatelet medications such as aspirin and clopidogrel work by preventing platelets from clumping together on damaged vessel walls, thereby reducing the formation of arterial thrombi. This is the primary mechanism that lowers the risk of clot-related events such as stroke and myocardial infarction.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Activating plasminogen into plasmin is the mechanism of thrombolytic medications such as alteplase, not antiplatelet drugs.
C. Antiplatelet medications do not increase thrombocyte clearance from the bloodstream; they alter platelet function rather than quantity.
D. Dissolving existing blood clots is the action of thrombolytics, not antiplatelets. Antiplatelets prevent new clot formation.
What is the most appropriate way to verify the placement of a nasogastric tube immediately after insertion?
-
Observing the client for signs of discomfort.
-
Auscultating for the tube's movement in the esophagus.
-
Injecting air through the tube and listening for gastric sounds.
-
X-ray verification of the tube's position.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) X-ray verification of the tube's position.
X-ray is considered the gold standard and most reliable method for confirming correct nasogastric tube placement immediately after insertion, as it directly visualizes the tube's location and confirms it has not been misplaced into the lungs or coiled in the esophagus.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Observing the client for signs of discomfort — Discomfort is subjective and unreliable; a client may not show clear signs even if the tube is misplaced. B. Auscultating for the tube's movement in the esophagus — This is not a valid or accurate method for verifying placement, as it does not confirm the tube has reached the stomach. C. Injecting air through the tube and listening for gastric sounds — This method, sometimes called the auscultatory method, has been found to be unreliable, since sounds can be transmitted even if the tube is incorrectly placed in the lungs, so it should not be used as the sole confirmation method.
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing an older adult client whose son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of impaired gas exchange in the older adult client?
-
Confusion
-
Bradycardia
-
Night sweats
-
Narrowed pulse pressure
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Confusion. In older adults, impaired gas exchange often presents atypically. Rather than classic signs like dyspnea, older adults frequently exhibit confusion or altered mental status as an early sign of hypoxia, since the aging brain is particularly sensitive to decreased oxygen levels.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Bradycardia — Impaired gas exchange typically causes tachycardia as the body attempts to compensate for low oxygen levels, not bradycardia. C. Night sweats — This is more commonly associated with infections or fevers rather than being a direct manifestation of impaired gas exchange. D. Narrowed pulse pressure — This finding is more associated with conditions like decreased cardiac output or shock, not specifically impaired gas exchange.
History and Physical
1000:
Client admitted to the ED with chest tightness radiating to jaw since 0600. Client is diaphoretic and appears anxious. Client reports chest tightness not relieved with rest, and periods of nausea, dizziness, and palpitations. Client reports history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Client is awake, alert and oriented to person, time, and place. Bilateral breath sounds clear and present throughout.
Select the 3 findings below that indicate the client is not progressing as expected.
-
Anticipated
-
Nonessential
-
Contraindicated
Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Anticipated Nitroglycerin is a first-line treatment for ischemic chest pain, promoting coronary vasodilation and reducing myocardial oxygen demand.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving vasopressin/ADH. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication that the medication is effective?
-
A decrease in blood pressure
-
A decrease in urine output
-
A decrease in blood sugar
-
A decrease in specific gravity
Explanation
Correct Answer:
(B) A decrease in urine output
Vasopressin replaces the ADH that is deficient in diabetes insipidus, promoting water reabsorption in the renal collecting ducts. Effective therapy results in decreased excretion of dilute urine, so a decrease in urine output indicates the medication is working as intended.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. A decrease in blood pressure — Vasopressin can actually cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure; a decrease would not indicate effectiveness of treatment for DI.
C. A decrease in blood sugar — Vasopressin does not act on glucose metabolism, so blood sugar is not a relevant indicator of its effectiveness.
D. A decrease in specific gravity — Effective vasopressin therapy causes the kidneys to concentrate urine, which would increase, not decrease, the urine specific gravity.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .