HESI RN 31I Pharmacology Exam
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Free HESI RN 31I Pharmacology Exam Questions
A client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement
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Avoid recognizing the behavior.
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Isolate the client from other clients.
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Administer a PRN sedative.
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Escort the client to a private area.
Explanation
Correct Answer D: Escort the client to a private area.
Explanation:
Redirecting Behavior While Maintaining Dignity:
Echolalia, the involuntary repetition of another’s spoken words, is a common symptom in schizophrenia, particularly during periods of increased stress or stimulation. It may be a way for the client to communicate or cope, even though it can be disruptive in a group setting. Escorting the client to a private area is a respectful and therapeutic approach—it allows the behavior to de-escalate in a less stimulating environment without shaming or isolating the client in a punitive way.
Minimizes Disruption and Promotes Safety:
By removing the client from a setting where others are becoming annoyed, the nurse helps prevent escalation, peer conflict, or stigma. A private setting provides a chance to assess the client further, offer support, and use redirection or grounding techniques. This approach prioritizes the well-being of the client and the comfort of others on the unit.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A: Avoid recognizing the behavior
Ignoring echolalia might work for mild, harmless behaviors, but not when it’s affecting others or potentially leading to agitation. In this case, ignoring the behavior does not address the disruption or provide therapeutic redirection.
B: Isolate the client from other clients
This is too harsh and can be punitive or stigmatizing. Isolation without clinical justification (such as danger to self or others) may worsen psychotic symptoms and damage therapeutic rapport. Isolation should never be a first-line intervention for behavioral symptoms unless safety is involved.
C: Administer a PRN sedative
Medication should not be the first response to behavioral symptoms unless the client is at risk of harming self or others, or the behavior is severe and unmanageable by other means. Using PRNs routinely to suppress symptoms like echolalia can reflect chemical restraint and is not considered best practice.
The CAGE questionnaire asks four questions and is a widely used to screen for alcoholism. Which of the four questions included in the CAGE questionnaire is most indicative of alcoholism
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Do you need a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover?
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Have you ever felt guilty about drinking?
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Have you ever felt you needed to cut down on your drinking?
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Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Do you need a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover?
Explanation:
This question addresses a physiological symptom of alcohol dependence — the presence of withdrawal symptoms and the need for alcohol to relieve them. Using alcohol first thing in the morning to avoid or relieve hangover symptoms is a strong indicator of physical dependence. It suggests the development of tolerance and withdrawal, both of which are hallmark features of alcohol use disorder. This behavior is not just about problematic drinking patterns but points directly to the body’s reliance on alcohol to function normally, making it the most clinically significant of the four CAGE questions.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B: Have you ever felt guilty about drinking?
While this question reflects emotional and psychological awareness of a problem, guilt alone is a subjective emotion and does not confirm dependency. Many people may feel guilty after drinking excessively on a single occasion, without meeting criteria for alcoholism. It helps identify problematic behavior, but it’s not the strongest indicator of physiological addiction.
C: Have you ever felt you needed to cut down on your drinking?
This question is common in early recognition of problematic drinking. It shows insight into the behavior but may be present in social drinkers who don't have dependence. It signals concern but does not confirm the presence of addiction or physical need.
D: Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking?
This question reflects the impact of drinking on social relationships and defensiveness about alcohol use. While it supports the possibility of misuse, it is external and subjective, relying on the client’s perception of others’ opinions. It does not confirm dependence or compulsion to drink.
A client with schizophrenia reports having 20 children and then very seriously points to the nurse and explains that the nurse is one of them. Which is the most therapeutic response for the nurse to provide
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I know that you don't have 20 children.
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Let's go ask another nurse if this is true.
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I cannot possibly be one of your children.
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My name tag shows that I am a nurse here.
Explanation
The correct answer is D: My name tag shows that I am a nurse here.
Explanation of the correct answer:
D. My name tag shows that I am a nurse here.
In the case of schizophrenia, clients may experience delusions, where they believe things that are not true. The most therapeutic response is to gently correct the delusion without directly confronting or arguing with the client about their beliefs. By calmly stating the truth (that the nurse is a nurse, not one of their children), the nurse provides a reality-based response that doesn't escalate the situation or challenge the client's beliefs in an aggressive or confrontational manner. The goal is to validate the client's feelings while reorienting them to the present reality.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. I know that you don't have 20 children.
This response directly challenges the client's delusion, which can be seen as invalidating or dismissive. In patients with schizophrenia, directly confronting or disputing delusions often leads to increased anxiety or agitation, and the client may become defensive or upset.
B. Let's go ask another nurse if this is true.
While this response may seem to provide reassurance, it still indirectly engages with the delusion, encouraging the client to continue questioning reality in an unhelpful way. This approach doesn't provide a grounding or therapeutic correction to the client's false belief.
C. I cannot possibly be one of your children.
This response is too blunt and confrontational. It not only challenges the delusion but also does not provide an opportunity for the nurse to correct the reality in a calm and therapeutic way. It could escalate the situation, making the client feel misunderstood.
The nurse is providing teaching to a client and family about schizophrenia before discharge from an inpatient facility. The nurse should instruct the family to notify the healthcare provider when which behavior is observed
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Decreased attention to detail.
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Changes in appetite.
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Fear of large dogs.
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Social withdrawal.
Explanation
The correct answer is D: Social withdrawal.
Explanation of the correct answer:
D. Social withdrawal
Social withdrawal is a classic early warning sign of relapse in individuals with schizophrenia. It indicates that the client may be decompensating or experiencing an increase in negative symptoms (such as apathy, flat affect, or lack of interest in relationships), or it may even precede psychotic symptoms like hallucinations or delusions. Teaching the family to recognize this behavioral change allows for early intervention, which can help prevent a full relapse or hospitalization.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Decreased attention to detail
While changes in attention can occur in schizophrenia, mild cognitive changes are often chronic and not always indicative of a relapse. On their own, they are not as significant a red flag as social withdrawal.
B. Changes in appetite
Appetite changes may occur due to medication side effects or mood fluctuations, but they are non-specific and less directly related to a potential relapse compared to more behaviorally significant signs.
C. Fear of large dogs
A specific fear, unless part of a pattern of paranoid or delusional thinking, is not necessarily related to schizophrenia relapse. It may reflect a personal phobia or unrelated anxiety, not a psychotic symptom.
A client who is experiencing a severe level of anxiety and reports a racing heartbeat, dizziness, and expresses a sense that something dreadful will happen. The nurse observes the client pacing and waving hands rapidly. Which action should the nurse take
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Help the client to identify thoughts that may be triggers.
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Speak calmly to the client stating assurance of safety.
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Attempt to distract to another focus or activity.
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Explore past behaviors that have provided relief.
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Speak calmly to the client stating assurance of safety.
Explanation of the correct answer:
B. Speak calmly to the client stating assurance of safety.
When a client is experiencing severe anxiety, particularly with physical symptoms like a racing heartbeat and dizziness, the priority is to calm the client and reassure them that they are safe. Speaking in a calm, soothing voice helps to de-escalate the anxiety response and promotes a sense of security. Reassuring the client about safety can help reduce feelings of impending doom and allow them to focus on more manageable thoughts. The nurse should focus on providing immediate comfort and stabilizing the client emotionally before moving on to further interventions.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Help the client to identify thoughts that may be triggers.
While cognitive interventions can be effective in managing anxiety in the long term, during a severe anxiety episode, the immediate priority is not to engage in cognitive exploration but to address the physiological and emotional distress. Asking the client to identify triggers may cause additional stress and be overwhelming in the moment.
C. Attempt to distract to another focus or activity.
Although distraction can be a helpful strategy to reduce anxiety in some situations, when a client is severely anxious, focusing on their emotions and providing reassurance about safety is more effective. Distraction may seem dismissive or fail to provide the necessary support in such an intense moment.
D. Explore past behaviors that have provided relief.
This is a helpful long-term strategy for managing anxiety. However, in the acute phase of anxiety, exploring past coping mechanisms could be overwhelming or not immediately effective. The priority should be to calm the client and ensure their safety before moving on to exploring coping strategies.
The nurse is caring for a client withdrawing from a fentanyl citrate addiction. The client receives a prescription for clonidine 0.2 mg PO taken twice daily. Which action should the nurse take
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Compare daily electrolyte levels prior to each morning dose.
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Administer the medication on an empty stomach.
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Advise to sit up slowly from a reclining position.
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Monitor for signs of signs of bleeding or hemorrhage.
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Advise to sit up slowly from a reclining position.
Explanation:
Clonidine and Orthostatic Hypotension:
Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that works by decreasing sympathetic outflow, which reduces withdrawal symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, muscle aches, and sweating. However, one of its most significant side effects is orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure when changing positions). To minimize the risk of dizziness, fainting, or falls, it is essential to educate the client to rise slowly from sitting or reclining positions. This helps their body adjust to postural changes more gradually, maintaining safety during the withdrawal process.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A: Compare daily electrolyte levels prior to each morning dose
Clonidine does not typically affect electrolyte balance, and daily electrolyte monitoring is not indicated for this medication. This intervention would be more relevant for medications like diuretics or certain chemotherapies that directly affect sodium, potassium, or magnesium.
B: Administer the medication on an empty stomach
Clonidine can be taken with or without food, and there is no requirement for it to be administered on an empty stomach. In fact, taking it with food may help reduce gastrointestinal discomfort in some clients.
D: Monitor for signs of bleeding or hemorrhage
Clonidine is not an anticoagulant or antiplatelet agent and is not associated with bleeding risks. This would be an appropriate precaution for medications like heparin or warfarin but not for clonidine.
While caring for an older adult client, the nurse observes multiple bruises in various stages of healing over the client's legs, arms, back, and gluteal areas. When the client will not maintain eye contact, the nurse suspects elder abuse. Which action should the nurse implement
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Measure and document size, shape, and color of the bruised areas.
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Report family conversations and anger towards the client when visiting.
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Ask the client specific questions about someone causing the bruising.
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Question the family members and caregiver how the bruising occurred.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Measure and document size, shape, and color of the bruised areas.
Explanation:
Objective Documentation as the First Priority:
When elder abuse is suspected, the nurse's first step is to collect and document objective data. Accurately measuring and describing the bruises — including size, shape, color, and location — provides essential evidence. This documentation establishes a clear, unbiased clinical record that may later support legal or protective interventions. Objective findings carry more weight than subjective interpretations and help differentiate between accidental injuries and potential abuse.
Legality and Professional Responsibility:
Nurses are mandated reporters, meaning they are legally required to report suspected abuse. But before a formal report can be made, detailed, factual evidence must be collected. Describing the bruises clearly and precisely in the medical record ensures that any further evaluation, whether medical or legal, starts from a credible foundation. Jumping to conclusions or asking leading questions without proper assessment could compromise the investigation or violate the client’s rights.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B: Report family conversations and anger towards the client when visiting
While it's important to be aware of and document concerning behavior from visitors, this option is subjective and secondary to physical evidence. The nurse should focus on what's directly observable before interpreting behavior or intent. Documentation of conversations may follow, but it is not the first or most critical action.
C: Ask the client specific questions about someone causing the bruising
Although it's important to eventually speak with the client, this should come after an initial objective assessment. Also, the client may be fearful or unable to speak openly in certain situations. Asking too directly or too soon may cause withdrawal or anxiety without gathering essential physical evidence.
D: Question the family members and caregiver how the bruising occurred
This may become necessary, but should not be the nurse’s first response. Family members or caregivers might not provide truthful answers, especially if abuse is occurring. Confrontation before collecting physical evidence could alert them and jeopardize the client's safety or the integrity of any investigation.
A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for breast cancer (BRCA) calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take
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Ondansetron 8 mg PO three times a day PRN.
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Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet PO every 4 hours PRN.
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Lorazepam 2 mg PO bedtime.
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Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime.
Explanation
The correct answer is C: Lorazepam 2 mg PO bedtime.
Explanation of the correct answer:
C. Lorazepam 2 mg PO bedtime
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is commonly used for its anxiolytic (anxiety-reducing) and sedative properties. The client is reporting being "so upset" that she cannot sleep, which suggests anxiety or stress as the primary issue. Lorazepam would help address both her anxiety and her difficulty with sleep, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario. Additionally, it is commonly prescribed for short-term management of anxiety symptoms, especially during periods of significant stress like starting chemotherapy.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Ondansetron 8 mg PO three times a day PRN
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting, commonly prescribed for clients undergoing chemotherapy. However, the client's primary complaint is related to anxiety and insomnia, not nausea or vomiting. Therefore, ondansetron would not address the current symptoms of anxiety and difficulty sleeping.
B. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet PO every 4 hours PRN
Oxycodone is an opioid pain medication, and acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). While these medications may help manage pain, the client is not reporting pain as her primary issue. In fact, opioids should be used cautiously in non-pain situations due to their sedating effects and potential for dependence. This medication combination would not address the anxiety and insomnia described in the situation.
D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime
Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with sedative properties that can help with sleep. However, the client's primary complaint is anxiety rather than pain. Diphenhydramine might help with sleep, but it does not address the underlying anxiety, and its sedative effects might not be as effective as a benzodiazepine like lorazepam in managing the level of distress the client is experiencing.
Patient Data
History and Physical
The client is a 19-year-old male who is in the
emergency room for a leg injury. He says he
was returning to his dorm from a party and fell
about 5 feet (1.5 meters) into a small ravine on
campus. The client reports that he drinks
socially and takes no medications for any health
condition.
Laboratory Results
|
Test |
Range |
|
|
Blood alcohol level |
0.16% (3.5 mmol/Lys |
Normal: 0% to 0.05% (0 to 10.9 mmol/L) Critical: Greater than 300 mg/dL (Greater than 64.8 mmol/L) |
|
Urine drug screen |
Positive for |
Negative |
Nurses' Notes
0300
The client appears intoxicated and is slurring
his words. He is oriented to self, place, and
time. His left leg is in a cast. Pulses equal in
both pedal pulses, both feet have less than 3
second capillary refill, no difference in
temperature. During the health history, the
client started to cry and said that he had not
told the entire truth about what had happened.
He stated, "Something very bad happened
with my friend before I left the party."
0330
Returned to the room after the healthcare
provider (HCP) had left to talk to the client and
Imaging Studies
0300
X-ray left lower extremity: Left tibial fracture
The nurse wants to teach the client about the long-term phase symptoms of rape-trauma syndrome. Which symptoms are consistent with long-term rape trauma
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Intrusive thoughts
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Avoidance of places associated with the assault
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Exaggerated startle response
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Hallucinations
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Overeating
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Social withdrawal
Explanation
The correct answer is
A. Intrusive thought
B. Avoidance of places associated with the assault
C. Exaggerated startle response
F. Social withdrawal
Explanation of the correct answers:
A. Intrusive thoughts
Intrusive thoughts are a common symptom of rape-trauma syndrome and other trauma-related disorders. These can include disturbing memories or flashbacks of the assault that resurface unexpectedly, leading to emotional distress and difficulty functioning in daily life.
B. Avoidance of places associated with the assault
Avoidance behaviors are often seen in individuals who have experienced trauma. Survivors may intentionally avoid places, people, or activities that remind them of the assault. This is a way of coping with the emotional pain and anxiety associated with the trauma.
C. Exaggerated startle response
An exaggerated startle response is common in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which can be a component of rape-trauma syndrome. Survivors of assault often experience hypervigilance and are easily startled by sudden noises or events, as they remain on high alert for perceived threats.
F. Social withdrawal
Social withdrawal is another common symptom of long-term rape-trauma syndrome. Individuals may avoid social interactions due to feelings of shame, guilt, or fear of being judged. This withdrawal can lead to isolation and difficulty forming or maintaining relationships.
Why the other options are incorrect:
D. Hallucinations
Hallucinations are not typical symptoms of rape-trauma syndrome. While trauma can cause significant emotional distress, hallucinations are more commonly associated with severe mental health conditions, such as schizophrenia or substance abuse, rather than trauma alone.
E. Overeating
Overeating is not a core symptom of rape-trauma syndrome, though some individuals might cope with trauma by engaging in unhealthy eating habits. However, it is not considered a defining characteristic of long-term trauma responses like avoidance, intrusive thoughts, or hyperarousal.
A sales executive presents to the psychiatric clinic for an initial evaluation, and tells the nurse, "My therapist said I needed to come. Last fall, I found out my spouse was having an affair. I had a drinking problem for years, but I've been sober for three years. I believe in God. I care about my kids." Which response is best for the nurse to provide
-
What does this have to do with the reason for your visit?
-
Why are you here?
-
What would you like us to do to help you?
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What is troubling you most
Explanation
Correct Answer D: What is troubling you most?
Explanation:
Focus on Client-Centered Exploration:
The best response is open-ended and client-centered, encouraging the client to identify and express the most pressing concern from their perspective. The statement, "What is troubling you most?" helps the nurse prioritize what the client sees as the primary issue and establishes a therapeutic rapport. It avoids judgment, assumes nothing, and invites the client to share more detail in their own words, which is crucial during an initial psychiatric evaluation.
Assessment with Sensitivity:
The client has already revealed several emotionally charged topics—betrayal by a spouse, a past history of substance use, and a connection to spiritual beliefs and children. These suggest inner conflict and potential distress. Asking “what is troubling you most” helps the nurse narrow the focus without overwhelming the client or making assumptions about which of those issues is most significant right now.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A: What does this have to do with the reason for your visit?
This response sounds dismissive and invalidating. It implies that the client’s concerns are irrelevant and can create resistance in communication. It lacks empathy and therapeutic tone.
B: Why are you here?
While this question might seem straightforward, it can come off as abrupt or even accusatory. It lacks warmth and therapeutic engagement, which can make a client defensive, especially during an initial visit.
C: What would you like us to do to help you?
This assumes that the client already knows what kind of help they need. In many psychiatric settings, especially early on, clients may be confused, ambivalent, or unsure of what help they’re seeking. It’s premature to ask this before clarifying the central issue.
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