Psychopathopharmacology 1 MSN 671 quiz 3

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Free Psychopathopharmacology 1 MSN 671 quiz 3 Questions

1.

Which phase of clinical trials involves testing on a small group of healthy individuals for safety?

  • Phase I

  • Phase IV

  • Phase III

  • Phase II

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Phase I

Explanation:

Phase I clinical trials are the first stage of testing in humans and typically involve a small group (20–100) of healthy volunteers. The primary goal is to evaluate safety, tolerability, dosage ranges, and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase answers the question: Is the drug safe in humans?

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

B. Phase IV

This is incorrect because Phase IV occurs after FDA approval, focusing on post-marketing surveillance to monitor long-term safety and rare adverse effects in the general population.

C. Phase III

This is incorrect because Phase III involves large randomized controlled trials in patients with the target condition to confirm efficacy, monitor side effects, and compare with standard treatments.

D. Phase II

This is incorrect because Phase II involves a larger group of patients with the disease to test efficacy and further assess safety, not healthy volunteers.


2.

The following are some instances of neurotransmitters that are made expressly as retrograde neurotransmitters, or those that travel from postsynaptic neurons to presynaptic neurons:

  • GABA

  • Galanin

  • Histamine

  • Nitric oxide

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. Nitric oxide

Explanation:

Retrograde neurotransmitters are signaling molecules produced by the postsynaptic neuron that travel back to the presynaptic terminal to regulate neurotransmitter release. Nitric oxide (NO) is the classic example: it is synthesized on demand in the postsynaptic neuron and diffuses rapidly across membranes to modulate presynaptic activity. Endocannabinoids (e.g., anandamide, 2-AG) are also important retrograde messengers, but nitric oxide is the prototypical gaseous retrograde neurotransmitter.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. GABA

This is incorrect because GABA is a classical inhibitory neurotransmitter released from presynaptic neurons, not a retrograde signal.

B. Galanin


This is incorrect because galanin is a neuropeptide that acts as a conventional transmitter/modulator, not a retrograde messenger.

C. Histamine


This is incorrect because histamine functions as a neuromodulator in arousal, attention, and immune responses but does not serve as a retrograde neurotransmitter.


3.

Presynaptic neuron reuptake transport of monoamines requires energy which is supplied by:

  • Calcium Pump

  • Potassium Pump

  • Sodium Pump

  • Proton Pump

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C: Sodium Pump

Explanation:

Monoamine reuptake transporters (for dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin) use the sodium gradient to drive neurotransmitter reuptake into presynaptic terminals. This gradient is maintained by the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump (sodium pump), which actively pumps sodium out of the cell and potassium in. The energy stored in this electrochemical sodium gradient is then harnessed by monoamine transporters to move neurotransmitters back into the neuron against their concentration gradient.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A: Calcium Pump

This is incorrect because calcium pumps regulate intracellular calcium for processes like neurotransmitter release but do not power monoamine reuptake.

B: Potassium Pump


This is incorrect because there is no independent potassium pump that directly drives monoamine transport. Potassium movement is part of the Na⁺/K⁺ pump cycle, but sodium is the primary driving force.

D: Proton Pump


This is incorrect because proton pumps generate proton gradients mainly in organelles like lysosomes and synaptic vesicles, not in presynaptic reuptake from the synaptic cleft.


4.

A 26 year old patient with ADHD has recently entered a drug rehab center following arrest for possession of cocaine. The cocaine use in this patient may be an attempt to self-medicate for ADHD symptoms because it inhibits the dopamine transporter (but is not itself taken up into the neuron by the transporter). Thus, cocaine has the same action at the dopamine transporter as:

  • Cocaine has the same actions at the dopamine transporter as amphetamine

  • Cocaine has the same actions at the dopamine transporter as methylphenidate

  • A and B

  • Neither A or B

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B: Cocaine has the same actions at the dopamine transporter as methylphenidate

Explanation:

Cocaine and methylphenidate both act by blocking the dopamine transporter (DAT), which prevents dopamine reuptake into the presynaptic neuron and increases extracellular dopamine. Importantly, neither cocaine nor methylphenidate are taken up into the neuron via the transporter. Amphetamine, in contrast, is transported into the neuron and then reverses the transporter, actively pushing dopamine out of the presynaptic terminal. Thus, cocaine’s pharmacological profile matches methylphenidate, not amphetamine.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A: Cocaine has the same actions at the dopamine transporter as amphetamine

This is incorrect because amphetamine enters the neuron via DAT and causes reverse transport, releasing dopamine into the synapse—a mechanism different from simple blockade.

C: A and B


This is incorrect because cocaine only shares its mechanism with methylphenidate, not with amphetamine.

D: Neither A or B


This is incorrect because cocaine clearly shares its mechanism of action with methylphenidate as a DAT blocker.


5.

Patrick is a 22-year-old male who recently experienced a psychotic-like episode after trying MDMA ("ecstasy") while at a party. A key binding site for hallucinogens is the:

  • GABA-A receptor

  • Cannabinoid 1 receptor

  • Serotonin 2A receptor

  • Serotonin 2C receptor

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Serotonin 2A recept

Explanation:

The serotonin 2A (5-HT2A) receptor is the principal binding site for hallucinogens such as LSD, psilocybin, and MDMA. Activation of these receptors in the cortex alters perception, cognition, and mood, producing hallucinations and psychotic-like symptoms. This receptor is strongly implicated in the pathophysiology of psychosis and is also a target for many atypical antipsychotics, which block 5-HT2A receptors.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. GABA-A receptor

This is incorrect because GABA-A receptors mediate inhibitory neurotransmission and are targeted by drugs like benzodiazepines and alcohol, not hallucinogens.

B. Cannabinoid 1 receptor


This is incorrect because cannabinoid receptors are activated by THC and synthetic cannabinoids, producing different effects such as relaxation, altered perception, and appetite stimulation, but they are not the main hallucinogen binding site.

D. Serotonin 2C receptor


This is incorrect because while 5-HT2C receptors modulate appetite, mood, and anxiety, they are not the primary receptor mediating hallucinogen-induced psychotic-like effects—the 5-HT2A receptor is central.


6.

What is the role of G proteins in the GPCR pathway?

  • Inhibiting adenylate cyclase

  • Triggering signaling pathways

  • Activating phospholipase C

  • Opening ion channels

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Triggering signaling pathways

Explanation:

G proteins act as molecular switches in the G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) pathway. When a ligand binds to a GPCR, the receptor activates an associated G protein by exchanging GDP for GTP. The activated G protein then goes on to trigger intracellular signaling pathways, which may include stimulating or inhibiting adenylate cyclase, activating phospholipase C, or regulating ion channels. Thus, its central role is initiating diverse downstream effects.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Inhibiting adenylate cyclase

This is incorrect because this is only one possible action of the Gi type of G proteins, not the universal role of all G proteins.

C. Activating phospholipase C

This is incorrect because this is a specific function of Gq proteins, not the general role of all G proteins.

D. Opening ion channels

This is incorrect because some G proteins (like Gβγ subunits) can open ion channels, but this is not their primary or overall role.


7.

A 48 year old patient with depression was recently started on 20 mg/day fluoxetine to combat his presenting symptoms of apathy, fatigue, problems concentrating, and hypersomnia. The patient reports that he is feeling much energized and can see improvements in his cognition and attention within a day or two of starting fluoxetine. Which properties of fluoxetine are likely responsible for this positive response?

  • 5HT2C antagonism

  • Norepi reuptake inhibition

  • Serotonin reuptake inhibition

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. 5HT2C antagonism

Explanation:

While fluoxetine is primarily an SSRI (serotonin reuptake inhibitor), its early energizing effects are largely attributed to 5HT2C antagonism. The 5HT2C receptor normally inhibits dopamine and norepinephrine release in the prefrontal cortex. By blocking this receptor, fluoxetine disinhibits dopamine and norepinephrine release, leading to improvements in energy, attention, and cognition within days—much faster than the delayed mood-elevating effects from serotonin reuptake inhibition.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

B. Norepi reuptake inhibition

This is incorrect because fluoxetine is not a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Other antidepressants (e.g., SNRIs, TCAs) provide this effect, but fluoxetine does not significantly block norepinephrine transporters.

C. Serotonin reuptake inhibition


This is incorrect as the explanation for the rapid energizing effect. While fluoxetine does inhibit serotonin reuptake, those changes take weeks to translate into clinical mood improvement. The patient’s immediate boost in energy and cognition is better explained by 5HT2C antagonism.


8.

Which of the following is considered the pleasure center of the brain?

  • Cortico-striatal-thalamic-cortical loop

  • Mesolimbic dopamine pathway

  • Mesocortical dopamine pathway

  • None of the above

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Mesolimbic dopamine pathway

Explanation:

The mesolimbic dopamine pathway, projecting from the ventral tegmental area (VTA) to the nucleus accumbens, is considered the brain’s pleasure and reward center. Activation of this pathway underlies the experience of reward, reinforcement, and motivation, and it plays a central role in addiction and reinforcement learning. Dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens is especially critical for the sensation of pleasure.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Cortico-striatal-thalamic-cortical loop

This is incorrect because this loop is more involved in motor control, habits, and obsessive-compulsive behaviors rather than direct mediation of pleasure.

C. Mesocortical dopamine pathway


This is incorrect because the mesocortical pathway projects from the VTA to the prefrontal cortex and is primarily involved in cognition, attention, and regulation of affect—not the sensation of pleasure.

D. None of the above


This is incorrect because the mesolimbic dopamine pathway is well established as the primary pleasure and reward pathway in the brain.


9.

A 35-year-old cigarette smoker would like to quit but is nervous because she typically craves a cigarette approximately every 2 hrs. The craving and withdrawal are due to:

  • Desensitization of nicotinic receptors

  • Resensitization of nicotinic receptors

  • Desensitization of muscarinic receptors

  • Resensitization of muscarinic receptors

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Resensitization of nicotinic receptors

Explanation:

Nicotine binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) in the brain, causing receptor activation and dopamine release, which produces reinforcement. After nicotine exposure, nAChRs become desensitized and stop responding despite nicotine being present. Over time (about every 1–2 hours), the receptors resensitize, becoming responsive again. This resensitization drives craving and withdrawal because the brain seeks nicotine to re-activate the now-sensitive receptors, creating the cycle of dependence.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Desensitization of nicotinic receptors

This is incorrect because desensitization occurs right after smoking, not when cravings emerge. Cravings arise when receptors resensitize.

C. Desensitization of muscarinic receptors


This is incorrect because muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are not the primary target of nicotine in addiction. Nicotine acts on nicotinic receptors, not muscarinic ones.

D. Resensitization of muscarinic receptors


This is incorrect because muscarinic receptors are not central to nicotine craving and withdrawal. The addiction mechanism involves nicotinic receptor cycles, not muscarinic receptor activity.


10.

When considering prescribing Clozapine, what genetic factor for African Americans may hinder the initiation of this medication by a prescriber?

  • Low plasma dimension

  • Low Seizure Threshold

  • Benign Neutropenia

  • None

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Benign Neutropenia

Explanation:

Clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, so prescribers monitor the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) before and during treatment. Some African American patients may have benign ethnic neutropenia (BEN) — a genetic variation leading to lower baseline neutrophil counts without an increased risk of infection. This can hinder initiation of clozapine because standard ANC cutoffs may falsely exclude these patients. Adjusted guidelines now allow for BEN, but prescribers must be aware of this factor before ruling out clozapine.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Low plasma dimension

This is incorrect because there is no recognized genetic factor called "low plasma dimension" influencing clozapine use.

B. Low Seizure Threshold

This is incorrect because clozapine does lower the seizure threshold at high doses, but this effect is not a specific genetic factor tied to African Americans.

D. None

This is incorrect because benign neutropenia is a real genetic factor in African Americans that impacts clozapine initiation.


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