HESI RN Medical-Surgical (Med-Surg) Exam
Access The Exact Questions for HESI RN Medical-Surgical (Med-Surg) Exam
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for HESI RN Medical-Surgical (Med-Surg) Exam on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free HESI RN Medical-Surgical (Med-Surg) Exam Questions
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care for a client who is 12 hours post-thyroidectomy?
-
Anticipate and monitor for hypothermia.
-
Prepare to administer radioactive iodine treatments.
-
Resume antithyroid drug therapy.
-
Maintain a semi-Fowler position.
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Maintain a semi-Fowler position.
In the immediate post-thyroidectomy period, maintaining a semi-Fowler position is the priority nursing intervention. This position reduces tension on the surgical site and suture line, promotes venous drainage, decreases neck swelling, and facilitates breathing — all critical concerns following neck surgery.
Hypothermia is not a primary post-thyroidectomy concern; hyperthermia or thyroid storm is more relevant. Radioactive iodine is used preoperatively or for thyroid cancer management, not in the immediate post-op period. Antithyroid drugs are used pre-operatively to reduce thyroid hormone levels and are not typically resumed immediately after surgical removal.
The nurse is providing teaching to a client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus about disease management. Which information stated by the client indicates understanding?
-
A Arrange diet schedule around three regular meals a day.
-
B Using salt, herbs, and spices will improve the flavor of foods.
-
C Eat a protein snack 30 minutes before any exercise workout.
-
D Get an eye examination with an ophthalmologist annually.
Explanation
Type 2 diabetes mellitus places clients at high risk for diabetic retinopathy, a leading cause of blindness. An annual dilated eye exam by an ophthalmologist is essential for early detection and treatment of retinal changes. This preventive measure significantly reduces the risk of permanent vision loss. Although meal planning, exercise, and sodium restrictions are parts of diabetes management, yearly ophthalmologic exams are critically important for long-term complication prevention.
Correct Answer Is:
D
The nurse is providing education to a client and family on hospice. Which information should the nurse provide about hospice care?
-
"Hospice relies strictly on nonpharmaceutical measures to treat pain."
-
"The main goal of hospice is to ensure the client dies with dignity."
-
"Hospice assists the client and family in finding a cure."
-
"Hospice follows a naturopathic model of healing."
Explanation
Correct Answer: B. "The main goal of hospice is to ensure the client dies with dignity."
The primary philosophy of hospice care is to provide comfort-focused, dignified end-of-life care for clients who are no longer seeking curative treatment. The goal is to maximize quality of life, manage pain and symptoms, and support both the client and family through the dying process with dignity and compassion. Option A is incorrect because hospice absolutely uses pharmaceutical measures, including opioids, for pain and symptom management. Option C is incorrect because hospice does not focus on finding a cure — it is palliative in nature. Option D is incorrect as hospice follows a holistic palliative model, not a naturopathic one.
Patient Data
History and Physical
The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the hospital with reports of shortness of breath, fever, fatigue, and oral thrush three days ago. The health care provider (HCP) reviews the laboratory and diagnostic tests with the client and informs of the diagnosis of s Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia The client reports receiving a positive HIV result. The nurse reviews
the client's medical record. HIV diagnosis received 4 months ago with no medications prescribed.
Late entry: A note added to the report regarding the client's wishes of HIV results kept confidential since family and friends are unaware of the HIV diagnosis.
Nurses' Notes
1000
Reports mild nausea.
1200
Reports severe nausea, generalized body aches, and pain with coughing at a 6 on a 0 to 10 scale.
Laboratory Results
0800 | ||
|---|---|---|
Laboratory test | Result | Reference range |
T-helper CD4 cells (CD4+ t-cell count) | 443 cells/mm3 | 600 to 1,500 cells/mm3 (60 to 75 %) |
Flow Sheet
0800
Vital signs
. Temperature: 100° F (37.7° C) orally
· Heart rate: 120 beats/minute
· Respirations: 28 breaths/minute
. Blood pressure: 100/78 mm Hg
1200
Vital signs
· Temperature: 102° F (38.8° C) orally
. Heart rate: 125 beats/minute
· Respirations: 30 breaths/minute
. Blood pressure: 90/78 mm Hg
Intake and output (I&O) | 0800 | 1000 | 1200 |
|---|---|---|---|
IV fluids intake | 0 mL | 50 mL | 50 mL |
Urine output | 50 mL | 50 mL | 30 mL |
Emesis | 0 mL | 100 mL | 200 mL |
Medications administered | . IV sodium chloride fluids initiated . Antibiotics | Aerosolized pentamidine isethionate | |
Which prescriptions should the nurse anticipate after an update is reported to the healthcare provider (HCP)? Select all that apply.
-
A Initiate airborne isolation
-
B Repeat CD4+ T-cell count STAT
-
C Monitor for adverse reaction to antibiotics
-
D Increase IV fluids to 150 mL/hr
-
E Administer antiemetic
Explanation
D. Increase IV fluids to 150 mL/hr
The client is showing clear signs of fluid volume depletion: persistent emesis, rising temperature, tachycardia, decreasing blood pressure, and significantly reduced urine output (30–50 mL). These findings indicate risk for hypovolemia and possible early septic shock in the setting of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Increasing IV fluids helps restore intravascular volume, improve perfusion, support blood pressure, and correct dehydration caused by fever and vomiting.
E. Administer antiemetic
The client reports severe nausea and is vomiting increasingly large amounts (100 mL → 200 mL). Continued emesis worsens dehydration, decreases oral intake, and increases electrolyte losses. An antiemetic prescription is anticipated to control nausea, reduce vomiting, and allow for better tolerance of medications and fluids. Treating nausea also decreases metabolic stress and supports overall stabilization during acute HIV-related pneumonia.
Correct Answer Is:
D, E
An older adult woman is seen in the clinic 3 months following her diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). She tells the nurse that she has had a difficult time keeping her blood sugar in control. The nurse reviews the client's current fingerstick and daily log of blood glucose levels. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
-
A Review the client's glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) level.
-
B Compare current weight with weight 3 months ago.
-
C Ask the client to recall her last 3 days of food intake.
-
D Collect a voided urine specimen for ketone analysis.
Explanation
Hemoglobin A1C is the most important measure for evaluating long-term glycemic control in type 2 diabetes. It reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 2–3 months, providing a more accurate picture than isolated daily readings that may fluctuate due to diet, stress, illness, or monitoring errors. Since this client is struggling with blood sugar control and is now 3 months into treatment, reviewing the A1C is essential to determine whether her overall management plan is effective. The result guides decisions about medication adjustments, lifestyle interventions, and future monitoring strategies.
Correct Answer Is:
A
During spring break, a young adult client presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
-
A Administer an antipyretic.
-
B Initiate isolation precautions.
-
C Prepare for a lumbar puncture.
-
D Draw blood cultures.
Explanation
A client with fever, severe headache, and nuchal rigidity must be treated as a suspected case of bacterial meningitis, which is highly contagious and spreads rapidly through respiratory droplets. The FIRST nursing action is to place the client on droplet isolation precautions to protect healthcare workers and other clients.
After isolation, the nurse can obtain blood cultures, prepare for lumbar puncture, and administer medications—but infection control must occur before all other interventions.
Correct Answer Is:
B
An adult woman with primary Raynaud's phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red and the client reports a burning sensation. Which action should the nurse take?
-
A Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation.
-
B Continue to monitor the fingers until color returns to normal.
-
C Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes.
-
D Report the finding to the healthcare provider (HCP) as soon as possible.
Explanation
The client is exhibiting the classic triphasic color change seen in Raynaud’s phenomenon: pallor → cyanosis → redness, followed by a burning sensation as blood flow returns. This sequence is expected during an episode triggered by cold or stress. After the warming intervention, reactive hyperemia occurs, causing redness and discomfort, both of which indicate recovery of circulation. No emergency action is needed unless symptoms persist, worsen, or become frequent. The appropriate nursing response is to continue monitoring until normal color and sensation fully return, while educating the client about prevention strategies such as avoiding cold exposure, managing stress, and using protective gloves.
Correct Answer Is:
B
Patient Data
History and Physical
54-year-old female is brought to the emergency department (ED) by private vehicle. She reports difficulty breathing which has significantly worsened in the past two days, and a moist cough producing thick, yellow sputum. Client reports home oxygen use of 1 liter/minute via nasal cannula; however, she has increased her use to 2 liters/minute due to difficulty
breathing. She has a medical history of heart failure (HF), hypertension, stage 2 kidney disease, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with multiple exacerbations. Two weeks ago, client had a viral upper respiratory infection for which she was started on stress dose steroids. She has no known allergies.
Nurses' Notes
2005
Healthcare assessment completed by healthcare provider (HCP).
Assessment
. General observation: Is leaning forward, resting her arms in front of her on the pillows. Hair is unkempt, poor oral hygiene, and body odor are noted.
· Neurological: Alert and oriented x 3.
· Cardiovascular: Heart sounds of S1, S2, S3, S4, and a systolic murmur. Jugular vein distention.
. Respiratory: Shallow respirations. Expiratory wheezing and crackles in bilateral upper lobes and diminished bilateral bases. Intercostal retractions.
· Musculoskeletal: Generalized weakness and easily fatigued.
· Gastrointestinal and genitourinary: Increased thirst. Last bowel movement 2 days ago. Increased urinary frequency.
. Integumentary: Skin is warm and diaphoretic. Bilateral finger clubbing. Dry mucous membranes. Poor skin turgor.
Flow Sheet
2005
Vital signs
· Temperature: 100.2° F (37.9° C) Axillary
. Heart rate: 124 beats/minute
. Respiration: 38 breaths/minute
· Blood pressure: 164/94 mm Hg
. Oxygen saturation: 87% on 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula
. Height: 5 feet, 11 inches (180.3 cm)
· Weight: 155 pounds (70.3 kg)
. Pain: rated 6 on a 0 to 10 scale, heaviness in the chest
For each of the findings listed, click to indicate which are consistent with the disease process of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), heart failure (HF), or urinary tract infection (UTI). Each column must have at least one response option selected.
For each finding listed below, which findings are consistent with the disease process of urinary tract infection (UTI)? (Select all that apply.)
-
A Pain: heaviness in the chest, rated 6 out of 10
-
B Temperature: 100.2° F (37.9° C)
-
C Oxygen saturation: 87% on 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula
-
D Heart sounds of S1, S2, S3, S4
-
E Respiration: 38 breaths/minute
-
F Jugular vein distention
-
G Expiratory wheezing and crackles heard in bilateral upper lobes and diminished bilateral bases
Explanation
B. Temperature: 100.2° F (37.9° C)
While the fever may also be related to COPD or HF complications, low-grade fever is commonly seen in UTIs, especially in older adults. Increased urinary frequency mentioned in the case also supports the possibility of UTI as a comorbidity.
Correct Answer Is:
B
A nurse is reviewing the client’s assessment findings after a fall. Based on the clinical presentation, which findings are MOST consistent with a humeral fracture rather than a rotator cuff injury? (Select all that apply.)
-
Reduced pulse distal to the injury
-
1+ strength in the left upper extremity
-
Decreased range of motion
-
Coolness of the skin
-
Pain with movement
Explanation
A. Reduced pulse distal to the injury
A diminished pulse (left radial 1+ compared to 2+ on the right) suggests vascular compromise, which is far more characteristic of a humeral fracture than a rotator cuff tear. Fractures can compress or injure nearby vessels, making this a concerning, fracture-specific finding requiring urgent evaluation.
B. 1+ strength in the left upper extremity
Severely reduced arm strength after trauma may occur in both conditions but is more severe in fractures where pain, structural instability, and possible nerve involvement decrease motor ability. In this case, the client cannot move the left arm and is guarding, consistent with a possible humeral fracture.
D. Coolness of the skin
A cool extremity indicates compromised perfusion, a complication associated with fractures where swelling or displacement may impair circulation. This is not typical of isolated rotator cuff injuries, making this finding strongly indicative of humeral fracture.
Correct Answer Is:
A, B, DThe nurse is caring for a client who had an appendectomy 4 hours ago. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?
-
A Pain rating of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10.
-
B High-pitched sound heard upon inspiration.
-
C Redness and edema noted at the incision site.
-
D Apical heart rate of 100 to 110 beats/minute.
Explanation
A high-pitched sound on inspiration suggests stridor, an ominous sign of upper airway obstruction. This can develop suddenly after surgery due to laryngeal edema, airway trauma, secretions, or a reaction to anesthesia. Stridor is a medical emergency because it can progress rapidly to complete airway obstruction. Immediate interventions are required—such as notifying the provider, preparing for airway support, and administering oxygen—to prevent respiratory failure. Airway compromise always takes priority over pain, incision changes, or mild tachycardia.
Correct Answer Is:
B
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .