NU335 Spring 2026 T2 CA CV Disorder Shock Emergency at Baton Rogue General School of Nursing
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Free NU335 Spring 2026 T2 CA CV Disorder Shock Emergency at Baton Rogue General School of Nursing Questions
A 22-year-old female patient arrives at the ED accompanied by an older male who states he is her "friend." The patient avoids eye contact, appears anxious, and allows the male to answer all questions. When the nurse asks the patient about her symptoms, the male interrupts repeatedly and insists on staying in the room. The patient has bruising in various stages of healing and no identification or insurance information. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A) Notify hospital security to detain the companion.
- B) Ask the patient direct questions about her trafficking situation in front of the companion.
- C) Seek an opportunity to separate the patient from the companion for a private conversation.
- D) Call local law enforcement immediately.
Explanation
Explanation
The situation described is concerning, as it suggests the patient may be a victim of abuse or human trafficking. The patient’s avoidance of eye contact, anxiety, and the companion’s controlling behavior (interrupting and insisting on staying in the room) are red flags for potential coercion or manipulation. The nurse should first separate the patient from the companion to provide an opportunity for the patient to speak freely in a private, safe environment. This allows the nurse to assess the situation more thoroughly and obtain accurate information about the patient’s condition, without the risk of the companion influencing the conversation。Correct Answer Is:
C. Seek an opportunity to separate the patient from the companion for a private conversation.After fluid resuscitation, a patient in septic shock has a decreasing blood pressure and cardiac output. The nurse anticipates the administration of which medication?
- A) Regular insulin
- B) Nitroglycerin
- C) Norepinephrine
- D) Sodium nitroprusside
Explanation
Explanation
In septic shock, despite fluid resuscitation, the patient may continue to experience low blood pressure and decreased cardiac output due to the effects of systemic vasodilation and impaired tissue perfusion. Norepinephrine is a vasopressor that increases systemic vascular resistance, helping to raise blood pressure and improve peripheral perfusion. It is the first-line medication for patients who remain hypotensive after adequate fluid resuscitation in septic shock。Correct Answer Is:
C. NorepinephrineA patient with tumor lysis syndrome is taking allopurinol. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
- A) Serum phosphate
- B) Uric acid level
- C) Serum potassium
- D) Blood urea nitrogen
Explanation
Explanation
Allopurinol is used in the management of tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), a condition where rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of uric acid into the bloodstream. Allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, the enzyme responsible for converting purines into uric acid. The nurse should monitor the uric acid level to assess the effectiveness of allopurinol in reducing uric acid levels, which helps to prevent the development of uric acid nephropathy (kidney damage caused by uric acid crystals) and other complications of TLS。Correct Answer Is:
B. Uric acid levelThe nurse is administering a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent intravenously to a cancer patient. Which method of delivery would minimize discomfort and risk of infiltration?
- A) Via a central venous access device.
- B) Via IV push route.
- C) Through a free-flowing infusion line.
- D) Through a small gauge IV catheter.
Explanation
Explanation
A central venous access device (CVAD), such as a central line or peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC), is the most appropriate method for administering vesicant chemotherapeutic agents. These agents can cause severe tissue damage if they infiltrate (leak out of the vein) or extravasate, leading to skin necrosis or other complications. A central venous access device provides direct access to a large vein (such as the superior vena cava), which minimizes the risk of infiltration and ensures that the drug is delivered to the bloodstream quickly and effectively, reducing the chance of adverse effects。Correct Answer Is:
A. Via a central venous access device.A patient experiences a lethal ventricular tachycardia. After aggressive resuscitation, the patient is revived with neurological status restored. What treatment would the nurse expect for this patient?
- A) Temporary pacemaker
- B) Intra-aortic balloon pump
- C) Permanent pacemaker
- D) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator
Explanation
Explanation
A lethal ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a life-threatening arrhythmia that can cause sudden cardiac arrest if not treated immediately. After resuscitation and neurological recovery, the patient is at high risk for recurrent episodes of VT or other dangerous arrhythmias. An implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is the most appropriate treatment to prevent sudden cardiac death. The ICD continuously monitors the heart's rhythm and can deliver a shock to restore normal rhythm if it detects a dangerous arrhythmia like VT or ventricular fibrillation。Correct Answer Is:
D. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillatorA patient with carcinoma of the lung develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) as a complication of cancer. The nurse anticipates which intervention will be indicated?
- A) Decreased oral sodium intake
- B) Monitor serum sodium blood levels
- C) Increased fluid intake
- D) IV administration of 5% Dextrose in water
Explanation
Explanation
In SIADH, the body retains too much water due to the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to dilutional hyponatremia (low sodium levels in the blood). The nurse should closely monitor serum sodium levels to assess the severity of hyponatremia and to guide treatment. The goal is to correct sodium imbalances and prevent complications like seizures or neurological damage。Correct Answer Is:
B. Monitor serum sodium blood levelsA patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting and diarrhea following each administration of chemotherapy. Which nursing intervention is most effective?
- A) Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present
- B) Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during the treatments
- C) Administer prescribed antiemetic 1 hour before the treatments
- D) Teach about the importance of nutrition after treatment
Explanation
Explanation
Chemotherapy often causes nausea and vomiting as side effects, which can be managed effectively with the use of antiemetic medications. Administering the prescribed antiemetic 1 hour before the chemotherapy treatments is the most effective intervention because it helps prevent nausea and vomiting before they occur, ensuring the patient has a better experience during and after chemotherapy. This proactive approach is more effective than waiting for nausea to occur and then attempting to manage it。Correct Answer Is:
C. Administer prescribed antiemetic 1 hour before the treatmentsA patient with known spinal metastases begins to experience urinary retention and bilateral leg weakness. What should the nurse suspect?
- A) Neuropathy related to chemotherapy
- B) Worsening spinal cord compression
- C) Peripheral arterial insufficiency
- D) Hypercalcemia of malignancy
Explanation
Explanation
Spinal cord compression is a serious complication of spinal metastases. When tumors in the spine grow, they can compress the spinal cord, leading to neurological symptoms such as bilateral leg weakness and urinary retention. These symptoms indicate that the compression is affecting the nerves responsible for movement and bladder control. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention, as it can lead to permanent paralysis if not treated quickly. Immediate assessment, including imaging, and intervention (such as steroids, decompression surgery, or radiation therapy) are required to relieve the pressure on the spinal cord。Correct Answer Is:
B. Worsening spinal cord compressionThe nurse is completing the primary survey on a trauma patient, understanding that the E stands for what?
- A) Emergent - notify next of kin
- B) Evaluate - draw blood samples for lab
- C) Examine - head-to-toe assessment
- D) Expose - remove patient's clothes
Explanation
Explanation
The E in the primary survey (which follows the ABCDE mnemonic) stands for Expose. This means the nurse should remove the patient’s clothing to assess for any hidden injuries that may not be immediately visible. The primary survey focuses on identifying life-threatening issues and ensuring the patient is not bleeding or injured in ways that are not visible when the clothes are still on. Exposing the patient helps ensure a thorough and complete assessment。Correct Answer Is:
D. Expose - remove patient's clothesAfter receiving information about four patients during change-of-shift report, which patient would the nurse assess first?
- A) Patient with acute pericarditis who has a pericardial friction rub.
- B) Patient who has just returned to the unit after balloon valvuloplasty.
- C) Patient who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and a heart rate of 116.
- D) Patient with a mitral valve replacement who has an anticoagulant scheduled.
Explanation
Explanation
The patient who has just returned from a balloon valvuloplasty should be assessed first, as this is an invasive procedure that can have complications such as perforation, bleeding, or thromboembolism. After any cardiac procedure, particularly one like balloon valvuloplasty, it is essential to monitor the patient closely for signs of complications such as arrhythmias, hypotension, or chest pain, which could indicate issues with the procedure. Ensuring that the patient is stable after the procedure is the priority。Correct Answer Is:
B. Patient who has just returned to the unit after balloon valvuloplasty.How to Order
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