ATI Anatomy and Physiology Exam
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Free ATI Anatomy and Physiology Exam Questions
The femur and the humerus belong to which of the following categories
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Long bones
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Short bones
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Flat bones
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Irregular bones
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Long bones
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
A. Long bones
The femur (thigh bone) and the humerus (upper arm bone) are classic examples of long bones, which are characterized by being longer than they are wide and having a shaft (diaphysis) with two ends (epiphyses). Long bones are primarily composed of compact bone tissue in the shaft and spongy bone at the ends. They are crucial in supporting the weight of the body and facilitating movement.
Long bones are typically found in the appendicular skeleton, which includes the limbs. Besides the femur and humerus, other long bones include the radius, ulna, tibia, fibula, metacarpals, metatarsals, and phalanges.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
B. Short bones
Short bones are roughly equal in length, width, and thickness, giving them a cube-like shape. They provide support and stability with little movement. Examples include the carpal bones in the wrist and tarsal bones in the ankle. The femur and humerus are significantly longer than they are wide, so they do not fit this classification.
C. Flat bones
Flat bones are generally thin, flattened, and often curved. They serve to protect internal organs and provide a surface for muscle attachment. Examples include the sternum, ribs, scapulae, and many cranial bones. The femur and humerus are not flat and do not have the protective or broad surface features typical of flat bones.
D. Irregular bones
Irregular bones have complex shapes that don’t fit into the other categories. They are often specialized for specific functions. Examples include the vertebrae, sacrum, and some facial bones. The femur and humerus, with their clear and consistent elongated shapes, are not irregular in form or function.
Summary:
The femur and humerus are classified as long bones due to their elongated shape and structural role in support and movement. They do not match the shape, structure, or function of short, flat, or irregular bones.
Which of the following is NOT an epithelial tissue membrane
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Mucus membrane
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Serous membrane
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Synovial membrane
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Skin
Explanation
The correct answer is C: Synovial membrane
Explanation:
The synovial membrane is not an epithelial tissue membrane. It is classified as a connective tissue membrane because it is composed primarily of connective tissue, specifically loose connective tissue, and it does not contain epithelial cells. Synovial membranes line joint cavities and secrete synovial fluid, which lubricates the joints.
Why the other options are correct:
A. Mucus membrane: This is an epithelial tissue membrane that lines body cavities that open to the exterior, such as the respiratory and digestive tracts. It is made up of epithelial cells and is involved in secretion and absorption.
B. Serous membrane: This is another type of epithelial membrane. It lines body cavities that are not open to the exterior (such as the thoracic and abdominal cavities) and produces a watery fluid (serous fluid) to reduce friction between organs.
D. Skin: The skin is an epithelial tissue membrane, specifically the cutaneous membrane, which serves as a protective barrier for the body. It consists of the epidermis (outer epithelial layer) and dermis (connective tissue).
Summary:
The synovial membrane is not an epithelial membrane because it is made of connective tissue rather than epithelial tissue, making option C the correct answer
Which of the following statements is correct regarding parietal pleura
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They adhere to the wall of the thoracic cavity surrounding the lungs.
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They adhere directly to each lung.
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They create a space between the lungs and the wall of the thoracic cavity.
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They are mucous membranes that contain ciliated epithelium.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: They adhere to the wall of the thoracic cavity surrounding the lungs
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
A. They adhere to the wall of the thoracic cavity surrounding the lungs
The parietal pleura is the outer layer of the pleural membrane that lines the inside of the thoracic cavity, including the chest wall, diaphragm, and mediastinum. It does not adhere directly to the lungs but rather lines the cavity in which the lungs reside. This is in contrast to the visceral pleura, which covers the surface of the lungs themselves.
The parietal pleura:
Provides protection and structure to the lungs
Is involved in the creation of the pleural cavity, which is filled with a small amount of pleural fluid to reduce friction during breathing
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
B. They adhere directly to each lung
This describes the visceral pleura, not the parietal pleura. The visceral pleura is tightly attached to the lung surface and follows its contours, including the fissures between lobes.
C. They create a space between the lungs and the wall of the thoracic cavity
While the parietal pleura is one side of the pleural cavity, it does not alone create the pleural space. The pleural cavity is the space between the parietal pleura (lining the chest wall) and the visceral pleura (covering the lungs). The statement oversimplifies and incorrectly attributes the cavity’s creation solely to the parietal pleura.
D. They are mucous membranes that contain ciliated epithelium
This is incorrect. The pleurae are serous membranes, not mucous membranes. Serous membranes secrete a thin watery fluid (serous fluid), not mucus, and they do not have ciliated epithelium. Ciliated epithelium is found in parts of the respiratory tract, such as the trachea and bronchi, to help move mucus and debris.
Summary:
The parietal pleura lines the walls of the thoracic cavity and does not cover the lungs directly. It is part of the serous membrane system and plays a role in enclosing the pleural cavity, but it does not independently form the pleural space nor contain ciliated epithelium.
Which of the following blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood to the right atrium of the heart
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Anterior and posterior coronary arteries
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Brachial and cephalic veins
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Left and right carotid arteries
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Superior and inferior vena cavae
Explanation
Correct Answer D: Superior and inferior vena cavae
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
D) Superior and inferior vena cavae
This is the correct answer. The superior vena cava and inferior vena cava are the two major veins that return deoxygenated blood to the right atrium of the heart. The superior vena cava drains blood from the upper body, including the head, neck, and upper limbs, while the inferior vena cava drains blood from the lower body, including the abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs. Their primary function is to ensure systemic venous return to the heart for reoxygenation via the pulmonary circulation.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
A) Anterior and posterior coronary arteries
Incorrect. These are arteries, not veins, and they carry oxygenated blood from the aorta to the myocardium (heart muscle) to nourish the heart tissue. They do not carry blood to the right atrium, nor are they part of the systemic venous return.
B) Brachial and cephalic veins
Incorrect. While these veins do carry deoxygenated blood, they are peripheral vessels of the upper limb. The brachial vein drains into the axillary vein, and the cephalic vein drains into the subclavian vein. Eventually, they contribute to the formation of the superior vena cava, but they do not directly enter the right atrium.
C) Left and right carotid arteries
Incorrect. These are arteries, not veins, and they carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the head and brain. They have no role in returning blood to the heart and certainly do not carry deoxygenated blood.
Summary:
The superior and inferior vena cavae are the main veins responsible for returning deoxygenated blood directly to the right atrium of the heart. Other vessels listed either carry oxygenated blood or are peripheral vessels that do not directly empty into the right atrium.
Which of the following describes the path air follows on the way to the lungs
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Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
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Laryngopharynx, pharynx, oropharynx
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Oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx
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Nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
A) Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
This is the correct answer. Air enters the body through the nose or mouth and then follows a specific pathway through the pharynx, which is divided into three anatomical regions in sequential order:
Nasopharynx – the upper portion located behind the nasal cavity.
Oropharynx – the middle portion behind the oral cavity.
Laryngopharynx – the lower portion that connects to the larynx and esophagus.
From the laryngopharynx, air moves into the larynx, then down the trachea, into the bronchi, and eventually reaches the lungs. This sequential flow is crucial for efficient respiration and airway protection.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
B) Laryngopharynx, pharynx, oropharynx
Incorrect. This sequence is disorganized and anatomically inaccurate. The pharynx is the collective term for the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx, not a step between them. Additionally, air does not pass through the laryngopharynx first; it is the final part of the pharynx before air enters the larynx.
C) Oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx
Incorrect. This order is incorrect. While air can enter through the mouth (passing through the oropharynx), the typical and more physiologic route is through the nose, which first leads to the nasopharynx. Moreover, the nasopharynx precedes the oropharynx anatomically, and the oropharynx precedes the laryngopharynx.
D) Nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx
Incorrect. This sequence jumps anatomically, skipping the oropharynx until after the laryngopharynx, which does not reflect the actual air pathway. The correct order follows the anatomical layout from upper to lower pharyngeal regions.
Summary:
The correct path of air as it moves toward the lungs is through the nasopharynx, then the oropharynx, and finally the laryngopharynx. This sequence ensures proper anatomical routing of inspired air from the nasal cavity to the lower respiratory tract. Other options list the components out of anatomical or physiological order.
Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system
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Pineal
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Hypothalamus
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Lung
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Ovary
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Lung
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
C) Lung
This is the correct answer. The lung is not a gland in the endocrine system. It is a respiratory organ responsible for gas exchange (oxygen and carbon dioxide) and plays a role in maintaining the balance of gases in the bloodstream. While the lungs secrete certain substances like hormones (e.g., atrial natriuretic peptide), they are not classified as part of the endocrine system, which consists of specialized glands that produce hormones for regulating bodily functions.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
A) Pineal
Incorrect. The pineal gland is part of the endocrine system and is responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles.
B) Hypothalamus
Incorrect. The hypothalamus is a key component of the endocrine system. It produces hormones that regulate the release of hormones from the pituitary gland, which controls many other endocrine functions throughout the body.
D) Ovary
Incorrect. The ovaries are endocrine glands responsible for producing estrogen and progesterone, hormones that regulate the female reproductive system and other bodily functions.
Summary:
The lung is not part of the endocrine system, which includes specialized glands like the pineal gland, hypothalamus, and ovaries that produce hormones to regulate various physiological processes. The lung's main function is related to respiration rather than hormone production.
What characteristic of receptors aids in the selective permeability of the cell membrane
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Receptor sites match the shape of a specific chemical.
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Receptor sites can match a wide range of chemical configurations.
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Receptor sites prevent direct passage of substances.
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Receptor sites permit direct free passage of substances readily across the cell membrane.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Receptor sites match the shape of a specific chemical.
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
A. Receptor sites match the shape of a specific chemical.
This describes the lock-and-key model of receptor function. Receptor proteins embedded in the cell membrane are highly specific—they are shaped to bind only to particular molecules (ligands), such as hormones or neurotransmitters. This specificity contributes to the selective permeability of the membrane, as only molecules with the correct structure can interact with these receptors to trigger a response or gain entry into the cell.
This mechanism is critical for cellular communication, transport, and signaling, ensuring that only designated substances influence cellular activity or are allowed entry, maintaining internal homeostasis.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
B. Receptor sites can match a wide range of chemical configurations.
This is incorrect because receptor sites are highly specific, not broadly receptive. If receptors matched a wide variety of chemicals, it would compromise selectivity, defeating the purpose of selective permeability.
C. Receptor sites prevent direct passage of substances.
While receptor sites don't typically form channels for direct passage, their primary function is not to block substances but to bind specific molecules and sometimes trigger downstream effects like channel opening. Blocking is more associated with the lipid bilayer or other structural features of the membrane.
D. Receptor sites permit direct free passage of substances readily across the cell membrane.
This is incorrect. Receptor sites themselves do not act as open channels. Free passage typically occurs through simple diffusion or open ion channels—not through receptor sites. Receptors facilitate specific interactions but do not allow open access across the membrane.
Summary:
The selective permeability of the cell membrane is aided by the specific shape-matching property of receptor sites. Only molecules with the right shape (ligands) can bind to their corresponding receptors, allowing the cell to regulate which substances influence its function.
Which of the following types of white blood cells enter the tissues and become macrophages
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Monocytes
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Neutrophils
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Lymphocytes
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Dendritic cells
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Monocytes
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
A) Monocytes
This is the correct answer. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that circulate in the bloodstream and are part of the innate immune system. When they migrate into tissues, they differentiate into macrophages, which are long-lived phagocytic cells. Macrophages play a critical role in the immune response by engulfing and digesting pathogens, cellular debris, and dead cells, and they also function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) that activate lymphocytes and initiate the adaptive immune response.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
B) Neutrophils
Incorrect. Neutrophils are also phagocytic cells and part of the innate immune system, but they do not become macrophages. They are short-lived cells that rapidly respond to infection, especially bacterial, and die soon after engulfing pathogens. They function independently of monocytes and macrophages.
C) Lymphocytes
Incorrect. Lymphocytes include B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, which are part of the adaptive immune system, not the innate phagocytic system. They do not become macrophages and serve entirely different roles such as antibody production (B cells) and cytotoxic functions (T and NK cells).
D) Dendritic cells
Incorrect. Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells like macrophages, but they do not originate from monocytes in the same way. While some tissue dendritic cells can arise from monocyte precursors, in general, dendritic cells are a distinct lineage with specialized roles in antigen presentation and activation of T lymphocytes. They are not classified as macrophages.
Summary:
Monocytes are the type of white blood cells that enter tissues and differentiate into macrophages, which are key players in phagocytosis and antigen presentation. Other white blood cells such as neutrophils, lymphocytes, and dendritic cells have important immune functions but do not become macrophages.
Which process of the kidneys that takes place in the distal and collecting tubes is responsible for moving substances out of the blood and into the urine
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Secretion
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Reabsorption
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Filtration
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Micturition
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Secretion
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
A. Secretion
Tubular secretion is the process in which the kidneys actively move substances from the blood in the peritubular capillaries into the filtrate in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. This is a crucial mechanism for eliminating excess ions (like potassium and hydrogen), drugs, and waste products that were not filtered earlier in the glomerulus. Secretion helps maintain electrolyte balance, pH regulation, and removal of toxins from the blood.
This process primarily occurs in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, making it essential for fine-tuning the composition of urine before excretion.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
B. Reabsorption
Reabsorption is the process by which the kidneys move water and useful solutes (like glucose, amino acids, and sodium) from the filtrate back into the bloodstream, mainly in the proximal tubule, though some continues in the loop of Henle and distal tubule. This is the opposite of secretion.
C. Filtration
Filtration occurs in the renal corpuscle (Bowman's capsule and glomerulus) and involves the passive movement of water and small solutes from the blood into the nephron. This happens at the start of the nephron, not in the distal or collecting tubules.
D. Micturition
Micturition is the process of urination, where urine is expelled from the bladder through the urethra. It is not a nephron process and has nothing to do with the transfer of substances between blood and urine.
Summary:
The movement of substances from the blood into the urine in the distal and collecting tubules is known as secretion. This process is vital for removing wastes and maintaining homeostasis.
Which of the following is a substance secreted by the pleura that prevents friction during breathing
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Mucous
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Surfactant
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Serous fluid
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Angiotensin
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Serous fluid
Detailed Explanation of the Correct Answer:
C) Serous fluid
This is the correct answer. The serous fluid is secreted by the pleura (the double-layered membrane surrounding the lungs) and serves to reduce friction between the pleural layers during breathing. This fluid allows the lungs to move smoothly against the chest wall as they expand and contract, preventing damage and irritation to the lung tissue. The presence of serous fluid helps in efficient lung function and reduces discomfort or injury caused by friction.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
A) Mucous
Incorrect. Mucus is secreted by various mucous membranes in the body, particularly in the respiratory tract, to trap dust, pathogens, and foreign particles. It does not play a role in reducing friction between the pleural layers of the lungs.
B) Surfactant
Incorrect. Surfactant is produced by the alveoli in the lungs, not by the pleura. Its function is to reduce surface tension in the lungs, preventing the alveoli from collapsing and ensuring efficient gas exchange. It does not prevent friction between the pleura during breathing.
D) Angiotensin
Incorrect. Angiotensin is a hormone involved in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance, particularly through its effect on the kidneys and blood vessels. It does not play a role in preventing friction during breathing.
Summary:
Serous fluid is the substance secreted by the pleura that reduces friction during breathing. This fluid allows for smooth lung movement within the chest cavity. The other substances listed—mucous, surfactant, and angiotensin—serve different functions in the body and do not address pleural friction.
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