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Ace Your Test with ATI Anderson MS II. Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free ATI Anderson MS II. Questions

1. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who reports difficulty seeing the chalk board in the front of the classroom. Which of the following tests should the nurse assist with performing?
  • Ask the child to find numbers on Ishihara plates.

  • Ask the child to identify items in a book.

  • Instruct the child to track items in the room.

  • Instruct the child to identify letters on a Snellen eye chart.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Instruct the child to identify letters on a Snellen eye chart.
Difficulty seeing the chalkboard at the front of the classroom is a classic symptom of myopia (nearsightedness), which is a problem with distance vision. The Snellen eye chart is the standard tool used to assess visual acuity for distance vision. Ishihara plates test for color blindness, identifying items in a book tests near vision, and tracking items tests extraocular muscle function — none of which address the child's specific complaint of difficulty seeing at a distance.
2. A nurse is collecting data on a client who has hearing loss. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing manifestations of Ménière's disease?
  • "I often feel like I have cotton balls in my ears."

  • "I can't get out of bed because the room is spinning."

  • "Sometimes I feel slightly dizzy when I am in a loud restaurant."

  • "I did feel some fluid dripping from my ear when I laid down."

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: B) "I can't get out of bed because the room is spinning."
Ménière's disease is characterized by a triad of symptoms: episodic vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, and tinnitus. The severe, debilitating vertigo — where the room feels like it is spinning — is the hallmark manifestation and can be so intense that the patient is unable to get out of bed. Cotton ball sensation suggests conductive hearing loss, mild situational dizziness is not specific to Ménière's, and fluid dripping from the ear suggests otorrhea from another condition, not Ménière's disease.
3. A pediatric patient with chronic liver disease is found to have prolonged bleeding times and low platelet counts during assessment. Which role of the liver should the nurse evaluate to explain these hematologic abnormalities?
  • The liver stores excess iron and releases it immediately to increase platelet production when needed.

  • The liver produces clotting factors essential for hemostasis, and its dysfunction can impair clot formation.

  • The liver produces erythropoietin, which stimulates white blood cell production in the bone marrow.

  • The liver filters aged red blood cells, preventing anemia caused by excess breakdown of healthy cells.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: B) The liver produces clotting factors essential for hemostasis, and its dysfunction can impair clot formation.
The liver is responsible for synthesizing most clotting factors, including fibrinogen and prothrombin. When the liver is diseased or dysfunctional, production of these clotting factors is reduced, leading to prolonged bleeding times and an increased risk of hemorrhage. Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys, not the liver, and iron storage does not directly regulate platelet production.
4. A nurse is obtaining a health history from a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
  • Confusion

  • Slurred speech

  • Fatigue

  • Pain

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Fatigue
Iron deficiency anemia results in decreased production of hemoglobin, which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells. As tissues and organs receive less oxygen, the body compensates by increasing heart rate and cardiac output, but cellular energy production remains impaired, resulting in fatigue as the most common and expected symptom. Confusion and slurred speech are neurological symptoms more commonly associated with severe hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, or neurological conditions. Pain is not a primary symptom of iron deficiency anemia.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a male adult client who is at risk for peripheral arterial disease from atherosclerosis. The nurse should identify that which of the following results places the client at risk?
  • Blood glucose 92 mg/dL

  • Elevated Cholesterol

  • Normal Sinus Rhythm on the Cardiac Monitor

  • Hypotension

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Elevated Cholesterol.
Elevated cholesterol is a major modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of fatty plaques in arterial walls that leads to peripheral arterial disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to plaque formation, narrowing the arteries and reducing blood flow to the extremities. A blood glucose of 92 mg/dL is normal, normal sinus rhythm is a healthy finding, and hypotension does not contribute to atherosclerotic plaque formation.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the functions of the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
  • "These organs regulate electrolyte balance."

  • "These organs assist with vitamin absorption."

  • "These organs are used in digestion."

  • "These organs are for immunity."

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: D) "These organs are for immunity."
The thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes are all components of the lymphatic and immune systems. The thymus is responsible for T-lymphocyte maturation. The spleen filters blood, removes old red blood cells, and houses lymphocytes for immune responses. The lymph nodes filter lymphatic fluid and serve as sites for immune cell activation when pathogens are detected. None of these organs are involved in electrolyte balance, vitamin absorption, or digestion.
7. A nurse is planning dietary education for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension. Considering evidence-based dietary approaches, which diet should the nurse recommend to best manage the patient's blood pressure?
  • A high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet to promote rapid weight loss.

  • A diet high in saturated fats and refined sugars to increase calorie intake and energy.

  • A ketogenic diet focusing on very low carbohydrate and high fat intake.

  • The DASH diet, emphasizing low sodium, high potassium, and low-fat dairy intake.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: D) The DASH diet, emphasizing low sodium, high potassium, and low-fat dairy intake.
The DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet is the gold-standard, evidence-based dietary recommendation for managing hypertension. It focuses on reducing sodium intake, increasing potassium, calcium, and magnesium through fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and low-fat dairy — all of which work synergistically to lower blood pressure. Diets high in saturated fats or refined sugars worsen cardiovascular risk, while ketogenic and high-protein diets lack strong evidence for blood pressure management.
8. A nurse is assessing a patient who reports changes in eye color and discomfort. Understanding that the colored part of the eye plays a critical role in regulating light entry, which anatomical structure is the nurse evaluating?
  • Iris

  • Retina

  • Sclera

  • Cornea

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Iris.
The iris is the colored part of the eye and controls the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil. It contains pigmented cells that give the eye its color (brown, blue, green, etc.). The retina is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye, the sclera is the white outer coating, and the cornea is the clear front surface. Changes in iris color and associated discomfort may indicate conditions such as iritis or uveitis requiring further evaluation.
9. A nurse is assessing a pediatric patient with suspected endocrine dysfunction. Which statement best reflects an understanding of the role of the endocrine system in maintaining homeostasis and regulating body functions?
  • It communicates with the body primarily through nerve impulses to regulate growth and metabolism.

  • It relies solely on positive feedback mechanisms to control hormone release and body responses.

  • It regulates body functions by secreting hormones from glands that target specific organs to maintain homeostasis and support growth, metabolism, and development.

  • It produces digestive enzymes exclusively to aid in metabolism and nutrient absorption.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: C) It regulates body functions by secreting hormones from glands that target specific organs to maintain homeostasis and support growth, metabolism, and development.
The endocrine system maintains homeostasis by secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream, which then travel to target organs and tissues to regulate growth, metabolism, reproduction, and development. It primarily uses negative feedback mechanisms, not positive. Nerve impulses describe the nervous system, and digestive enzyme production is the role of the exocrine pancreas, not the endocrine system.
10. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected hypocalcemia. How should the nurse use Chvostek's sign to guide further care?
  • Apply pressure to the patient's Achilles tendon to check for muscle spasms related to calcium imbalance.

  • Percuss the patient's lower leg to evaluate for muscle tenderness associated with electrolyte imbalance.

  • Tap the patient's facial nerve near the cheekbone and observe for twitching of the facial muscles, indicating hypocalcemia.

  • Check the patient's pupil response to light to assess for neurological complications of hypocalcemia.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Tap the patient's facial nerve near the cheekbone and observe for twitching of the facial muscles, indicating hypocalcemia.
Chvostek's sign is a clinical assessment technique used to detect hypocalcemia. It is elicited by tapping the facial nerve just anterior to the earlobe near the cheekbone. A positive sign is indicated by involuntary twitching of the facial muscles on the same side, which occurs because low calcium levels increase neuromuscular excitability. This is a quick bedside test that helps guide further evaluation and treatment of calcium deficiency.

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