Hesi Medical Surgical 1

Hesi Medical Surgical 1

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Free Hesi Medical Surgical 1 Questions

1.

A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is admitted to the hospital for uncontrolled DM. Insulin therapy is initiated with an initial dose of isophane suspension insulin at 0800. At 1600, the client reports diaphoresis, a rapid heartbeat, and feeling shaky. Which action should the nurse perform first

  • Give the client one-half cup of fruit juice.

  • Give the client skim milk and crackers.

  • Determine the client's current glucose level.

  • Assess the client's oxygen saturation level.

Explanation

Correct Answer C: Determine the client's current glucose level.

Why this is the correct answer:

The client’s symptoms of diaphoresis (sweating), a rapid heartbeat, and feeling shaky suggest the possibility of hypoglycemia (low blood glucose), which is a common side effect of insulin therapy, especially in individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus who may not be accustomed to insulin. The first priority is to confirm whether the symptoms are indeed due to hypoglycemia by checking the current glucose level. This will guide the nurse's subsequent actions. If the blood glucose is low, the appropriate interventions can be started immediately.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Give the client one-half cup of fruit juice.

While fruit juice is a common treatment for hypoglycemia, it should only be administered after confirming the low blood glucose level. If the blood glucose level is already normal or high, giving fruit juice could be harmful. Therefore, it is important to first check the glucose level before administering anything.

B. Give the client skim milk and crackers.

This is another appropriate treatment for hypoglycemia (because it contains both carbohydrate and protein), but, like the fruit juice, it should only be given after confirming the client’s blood glucose level. Administering it without knowing the glucose level could result in inappropriate treatment.

D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level.

While oxygen saturation might be important to assess in certain situations (e.g., respiratory distress or heart failure), hypoglycemia is most likely the cause of the client’s symptoms in this case. The first step should be to confirm whether hypoglycemia is the issue by checking the blood glucose level. If the glucose level is low, oxygen saturation would not be the priority in this scenario.


2.

During an assessment, the nurse determines that a client with hypothyroidism has a goiter. An increase in which laboratory test result(s) supports this finding

  • Serum triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4).

  • Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

  • lodine.

  • Calcium

Explanation

Correct Answer B: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

Explanation of the correct answer:

In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive and produces insufficient amounts of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). In response to this, the pituitary gland secretes more thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. However, in hypothyroidism, the thyroid cannot respond adequately, leading to persistently high levels of TSH in the blood. A goiter, which is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, often occurs as a result of the gland's continuous stimulation due to high TSH levels. Therefore, an increase in TSH levels supports the presence of hypothyroidism and the development of a goiter.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Serum triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4):

In hypothyroidism, the levels of T3 and T4 are typically low, not elevated. Therefore, an increase in these levels would not support the presence of a goiter in a client with hypothyroidism.

C. Iodine:

Iodine deficiency can lead to a goiter, but iodine levels are not typically elevated in hypothyroidism. Instead, iodine deficiency may be a contributing factor to goiter formation, but it is not a direct laboratory result associated with hypothyroidism and goiter in the context of this question.

D. Calcium:

Calcium levels are not directly related to the presence of a goiter in hypothyroidism. Although calcium imbalances can occur with thyroid disorders (e.g., hyperparathyroidism), calcium levels do not provide direct information about the thyroid's function or the presence of a goiter.


3.

An adult client who is experiencing an exacerbation of Crohn's disease is admitted to the medical unit from the emergency department (ED). When preparing for the client's arrival to the unit, the nurse requests a lunch tray for the client. Which menu should the nurse choose

  • Chef salad with turkey, cheese, tomatoes, and ranch dressing.

  • Oral nutritional supplement, herbal tea, and gelatin.

  • Chicken noodle soup and a toasted ham and cheese sandwich.

  • Hamburger patty, mashed potatoes, green beans, and corn.

Explanation

Correct Answer B: Oral nutritional supplement, herbal tea, and gelatin.

Why this is the correct answer:

During an exacerbation of Crohn’s disease, the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is inflamed, and the priority is to minimize further irritation. The client should be placed on a low-residue, low-fiber, easily digestible diet or, in many cases, a clear liquid or full liquid diet depending on severity. Oral nutritional supplements, gelatin, and herbal tea provide calories and hydration without burdening the digestive tract, allowing the bowel to rest. This option avoids fiber, fats, and roughage that could aggravate inflammation and exacerbate symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and cramping.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Chef salad with turkey, cheese, tomatoes, and ranch dressing.

This meal contains raw vegetables (lettuce, tomatoes) which are high in fiber and can irritate the inflamed bowel. Cheese and ranch dressing are also high in fat, which may be difficult to digest during a flare. Salads are generally contraindicated during active inflammation in Crohn’s disease.

C. Chicken noodle soup and a toasted ham and cheese sandwich.

Though this meal may seem mild, bread and processed meats like ham and cheese are not ideal during a Crohn's exacerbation. They can be high in sodium, fat, and difficult to digest. The soup may contain vegetables and seasonings that can further irritate the GI tract. It is not suitable during an acute flare when bowel rest is the priority.

D. Hamburger patty, mashed potatoes, green beans, and corn.

This meal includes corn and green beans, which are high-fiber vegetables that are difficult to digest during a flare. The hamburger patty can be high in fat and may worsen GI symptoms. Corn in particular is poorly digested and can irritate the mucosa, making it inappropriate during exacerbation.


4.

The nurse assists a client with Parkinson's disease (PD) to ambulate in the hallway. The client appears to "freeze" and then carefully lifts one leg and steps forward. The client tells the nurse of pretending to step over a crack on the floor. How should the nurse respond

  •  Assist the client to a carpeted area where he can walk more easily.

  • Confirm that this is an effective technique to help with ambulation.

  • Plan to assess the client's cognition after returning to his room.

  • Re-orient the client to his present location and circumstances.

Explanation

Correct Answer B: Confirm that this is an effective technique to help with ambulation.

Why this is the correct answer:

The client with Parkinson’s disease is using a known and effective compensatory strategy to overcome freezing of gait, which is a common motor symptom. Techniques such as pretending to step over a line or crack, using visual cues, or counting can help initiate movement and prevent falls. This method is cognitively purposeful and appropriate, demonstrating that the client is aware of their limitations and has adopted a strategy to remain mobile. The nurse should validate and encourage this approach as it promotes safety and autonomy.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Assist the client to a carpeted area where he can walk more easily.

Carpeted surfaces may increase the risk of tripping and falling for clients with Parkinson’s due to uneven footing or increased resistance. There is no evidence that a carpeted area helps with freezing of gait; it could, in fact, make walking more difficult.

C. Plan to assess the client's cognition after returning to his room.

This response implies that the client’s behavior is inappropriate or cognitively impaired, which it is not. The client is demonstrating a deliberate and effective strategy, not confusion or disorientation. Planning a cognitive assessment would not be warranted based on this specific behavior.

D. Re-orient the client to his present location and circumstances.

Re-orienting is unnecessary and inappropriate here because the client is not disoriented. The action of pretending to step over a crack is intentional, not a sign of confusion. This response could discourage the use of a helpful coping strategy.


5.

A client's laboratory findings indicate elevations in triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) hormones. The nurse suspects that the client may have hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding is most often associated with hyperthyroidism

  • Increased heart rate.

  • Atrophied thyroid gland.

  • Diarrhea stools.

  •  Periorbital edema.

Explanation

Correct Answer A: Increased heart rate.

Why this is the correct answer:

Hyperthyroidism is a condition where there is an excessive production of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which accelerates the body's metabolism. One of the most common and early symptoms of hyperthyroidism is an increased heart rate (tachycardia), which occurs due to the stimulating effect of excess thyroid hormones on the cardiovascular system. The elevated thyroid hormones cause the heart to pump faster, leading to tachycardia. This is the most common and frequent finding associated with hyperthyroidism.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Atrophied thyroid gland.

An atrophied thyroid gland is more likely to be seen in hypothyroidism rather than hyperthyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland is often enlarged (goiter) due to the overproduction of hormones. Atrophy of the thyroid gland can occur in conditions like Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which leads to hypothyroidism, not in hyperthyroidism.

C. Diarrhea stools.

Although diarrhea can occur in some cases of hyperthyroidism due to the increased metabolic rate and gastrointestinal motility, it is not as commonly observed as tachycardia. Increased bowel movements or diarrhea may be present, but they are secondary to the more prominent symptoms of hyperthyroidism, such as tachycardia, weight loss, and nervousness.

D. Periorbital edema.

Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is more commonly seen in hypothyroidism, particularly in myxedema. In hyperthyroidism, you are more likely to observe symptoms such as exophthalmos (bulging eyes) in Graves' disease, which is a common cause of hyperthyroidism, rather than periorbital edema.


6.

The nurse observes that a newly admitted client with Parkinson's disease exhibits a mask like facial appearance. Which additional nursing assessment takes priority in response to this finding

  • Speech patterns.

  • Respiratory rate.

  • Swallowing ability.

  • Neck flexion.

Explanation

Correct Answer C: Swallowing ability.

Why this is the correct answer:

A mask-like facial appearance is a common manifestation of Parkinson's disease due to hypomimia, which refers to the reduced ability to show facial expressions. This occurs as a result of bradykinesia (slowness of movement), which affects facial muscles. One of the most important aspects of nursing assessment in clients with Parkinson's disease is swallowing ability. Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) is a common and serious complication of Parkinson's disease, which increases the risk for aspiration and choking. Therefore, assessing the client's swallowing ability should take priority to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Speech patterns.

While speech changes (such as a softer or more monotone voice) are common in Parkinson's disease, the immediate priority in response to a mask-like facial appearance is to assess for swallowing difficulties. Although speech patterns may also be affected by Parkinson's disease, it is swallowing ability that poses the highest risk for immediate complications.

B. Respiratory rate.

Although respiratory function can be impacted by Parkinson’s disease, especially in later stages, it is not the most pressing concern related to the mask-like facial appearance. The priority in this case is assessing swallowing due to the high risk of aspiration and its associated complications.

D. Neck flexion.

Neck flexion or postural changes (such as kyphosis or a forward-leaning posture) are common in Parkinson's disease due to rigidity and postural instability. However, neck flexion is not directly related to the mask-like appearance and does not require immediate assessment in the context of this finding.


7.

The nurse who is working on a pediatric unit receives shift report for 4 neonates with congenital heart defects. The neonate with which report requires the most immediate intervention

  • Ventricular septal defect (VSD) has audible murmurs.

  • Patent ductus arteriosus is fatigued after feedings.

  • Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) with hypercyanotic (TET) spells is crying.

  • Coarctation of aorta has an elevated blood pressure in upper extremity.

Explanation

Correct Answer C. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) with hypercyanotic (TET) spells is crying.

Why this is the correct answer:

C. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) with hypercyanotic (TET) spells is crying.

A hypercyanotic or “TET” spell occurs when oxygen demand suddenly exceeds supply, leading to severe hypoxemia and cyanosis. Crying exacerbates the spell by increasing oxygen demand and decreasing systemic vascular resistance. This is a medical emergency because prolonged hypoxemia can result in loss of consciousness, seizures, or death. Immediate intervention is required—placing the infant in a knee-chest position, administering oxygen, and preparing for medications or possible surgical intervention.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) has audible murmurs.

Murmurs are common with VSD and often monitored without immediate emergency intervention. While it requires follow-up, it is not life-threatening in the moment.

B. Patent ductus arteriosus is fatigued after feedings.

Feeding fatigue is expected with PDA due to increased workload on the heart. This is important but not immediately life-threatening like a TET spell.

D. Coarctation of aorta has an elevated blood pressure in upper extremity.

Upper extremity hypertension is a classic finding of coarctation but does not indicate acute decompensation. It requires management but not emergent intervention.


8.

At 34-weeks gestation, a primigravida is assessed at her bimonthly clinic visit. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider

  • Fetal heart rate of 110 beats/minute.

  • Fundus below the xiphoid.

  • Weight gain of 7 pounds (3.2 kg).

  • Increased appetite.

Explanation

Correct Answer C. Weight gain of 7 pounds (3.2 kg).

Why this is the correct answer:

C. Weight gain of 7 pounds (3.2 kg).

A sudden or excessive weight gain in late pregnancy is concerning because it can indicate fluid retention associated with preeclampsia. At 34 weeks, a normal weight gain should average about 1 pound (0.5 kg) per week. A 7-pound gain between visits is excessive and requires immediate evaluation for hypertension, edema, and proteinuria. Early recognition is critical to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Fetal heart rate of 110 beats/minute.

The normal fetal heart rate range is 110–160 beats/minute. While 110 is on the low end, it is still within normal limits and not the most urgent finding.

B. Fundus below the xiphoid.

At 34 weeks, the fundus is expected to be near the xiphoid process. This is a normal finding and not concerning.

D. Increased appetite.

An increased appetite in late pregnancy is a common and expected change. It does not pose a clinical risk compared to excessive weight gain.


9.

A home-bound client with severe, end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being visited by the home health nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching.plan

  •  Use the beta-agonist inhalers every 2 hours, around the clock.

  • Use pursed-lip breathing techniques continually, around the clock.

  • Use oxygen continuously, at the lowest dose possible.

  • Cluster activities together, first thing in the morning.

Explanation

Correct Answer C: Use oxygen continuously, at the lowest dose possible.

Why this is the correct answer:

For a client with severe, end-stage COPD, continuous low-flow oxygen therapy is often essential to maintain adequate oxygenation and reduce the risk of hypoxemia. However, oxygen must be administered at the lowest effective dose, typically 1–2 L/min via nasal cannula, because high oxygen concentrations can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe in patients who retain CO₂ (hypercapnia). The goal is to relieve hypoxia while avoiding CO₂ retention and respiratory acidosis. This is a cornerstone of advanced COPD management and is both safe and evidence-based.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Use the beta-agonist inhalers every 2 hours, around the clock.

Beta-agonist inhalers (e.g., albuterol) are rescue medications, typically used as needed for acute dyspnea or bronchospasm, not around the clock. Using them every 2 hours continuously would increase the risk of side effects like tachycardia, tremors, and palpitations, and is not aligned with proper medication protocol.

B. Use pursed-lip breathing techniques continually, around the clock.

Pursed-lip breathing is a valuable technique to help manage dyspnea and improve CO₂ elimination, but it should be used during episodes of shortness of breath, not continually. Continuous use is impractical and unnecessary, and may actually cause fatigue in a severely ill client.

D. Cluster activities together, first thing in the morning.

This is not appropriate for a client with end-stage COPD, who has limited energy reserves and often experiences early morning fatigue and oxygen desaturation. Instead of clustering, the nurse should instruct the client to pace activities throughout the day, with adequate rest between tasks to avoid exertional dyspnea and exhaustion.


10.

The nurse is caring for a school age child diagnosed with bacterial meningitis who is experiencing fever, irritability, and nuchal rigidity. Which action should the nurse prioritize

  •  Provide ice packs and antipyretic.

  • Give prescribed pain medication.

  • Limit environmental stimuli.

  • Administer prescribed antibiotic therapy.

Explanation

Correct Answer D. Administer prescribed antibiotic therapy.

Why this is the correct answer:

D. Administer prescribed antibiotic therapy.

Bacterial meningitis is a life-threatening infection of the meninges. The most important and urgent intervention is administration of antibiotics to eliminate the causative organism and prevent progression of infection, sepsis, or neurological damage. Supportive measures such as fever reduction and pain management are important, but they do not address the underlying cause. Prompt initiation of antibiotic therapy greatly reduces morbidity and mortality in children with bacterial meningitis.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Provide ice packs and antipyretic.

While reducing fever provides comfort and can help decrease metabolic demands, it does not treat the infection. Fever control is supportive care, not the life-saving priority.

B. Give prescribed pain medication.

Pain relief is important for comfort but is secondary to treating the infection. Pain medication does not halt the disease process or prevent complications such as seizures or brain damage.

C. Limit environmental stimuli.

Decreasing stimuli helps reduce irritability and discomfort associated with meningitis, but it is not a priority over antibiotic administration. Comfort measures are supportive, not curative.


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Frequently Asked Question

This guide is perfect for nursing students preparing for the HESI Medical-Surgical 1 exam—and anyone wanting to boost their clinical reasoning and NCLEX readiness.

Yes. Whether you’re new to HESI or looking to retake, this guide is built to simplify complex concepts and sharpen your clinical judgment.

Expect heavy focus on cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, and endocrine systems—plus medication safety, clinical reasoning, lab value interpretation, and emergency response.

Absolutely. All content is aligned with NCLEX-RN guidelines and the latest HESI exam blueprints, focusing on safe, evidence-based adult patient care.

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You’ll get access to 150+ exam-style questions covering fluid balance, perioperative care, infection control, and system-specific conditions—plus detailed rationales and real-world clinical scenarios.