Hesi Medical Surgical 1
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A client with pernicious anemia takes supplemental folate and self-administers monthly vitamin B12 injections. The client reports feeling increasingly fatigued. Which laboratory value should the nurse review
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Serum electrolytes.
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Complete blood count.
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Liver enzymes.
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Platelet count.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Complete blood count.
Explanation of the correct answer:
B. Complete blood count (CBC):
In pernicious anemia, the primary concern is the impaired ability to absorb vitamin B12 due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency in vitamin B12. While the client is receiving monthly vitamin B12 injections, fatigue could indicate that the treatment is not fully effective, possibly due to other factors such as inadequate vitamin B12 absorption or noncompliance with the regimen. The CBC is the most appropriate test to assess this as it will measure the red blood cell count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and mean corpuscular volume (MCV), all of which can reveal signs of anemia (such as low hemoglobin or large, immature red blood cells characteristic of megaloblastic anemia). The CBC will also help determine if the client is still anemic or if there is another cause of the fatigue.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Serum electrolytes:
Serum electrolytes measure levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate, which are important for maintaining fluid balance and acid-base homeostasis. However, electrolyte imbalances are not directly related to pernicious anemia or its treatment. The primary concern in this client is the vitamin B12 status and red blood cell production, which is best assessed through a CBC.
C. Liver enzymes:
Liver enzymes are typically measured to assess liver function. While vitamin B12 deficiency can occasionally lead to liver problems, liver enzymes are not directly related to pernicious anemia or its treatment. Therefore, reviewing liver enzymes would not be the priority in assessing the cause of the client's fatigue.
D. Platelet count:
While platelet count can be assessed as part of a CBC, it is not the most relevant test in this situation. The client's fatigue is more likely related to anemia, which would be detected through hemoglobin and hematocrit levels rather than platelet count. A low platelet count is not typically associated with pernicious anemia
The nurse is caring for a 5-week-old infant presenting with a history of projectile vomiting after feedings. Which additional finding should the nurse expect to assess
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Frequent burping accompanied by poor feeding.
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Olive-size mass in the epigastric area.
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Stool that consists of mucus and blood.
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Rebound tenderness in the left lower abdominal quadrant.
Explanation
Correct Answer B. Olive-size mass in the epigastric area.
Why this is the correct answer:
B. Olive-size mass in the epigastric area.
Projectile vomiting after feedings in a 5-week-old is a classic presentation of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a condition where the pyloric sphincter thickens and obstructs gastric emptying. A firm, palpable, olive-sized mass in the epigastric or right upper quadrant area is a hallmark physical finding. This mass represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle and confirms the diagnosis.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Frequent burping accompanied by poor feeding.
Although poor feeding may be present, frequent burping is nonspecific and not diagnostic of pyloric stenosis. The key finding is projectile vomiting with the palpable mass.
C. Stool that consists of mucus and blood.
Mucus and bloody stools are more consistent with intussusception, not pyloric stenosis.
D. Rebound tenderness in the left lower abdominal quadrant.
Rebound tenderness suggests peritonitis or appendicitis in older children, not pyloric stenosis in infants. It is not an expected finding in this condition.
A client diagnosed with a seizure disorder is receiving phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse provide this client
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Decrease fluid intake when taking this medication.
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Take the medication on an empty stomach.
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Contact your healthcare provider before trying to get pregnant
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Stop taking the medication if hirsutism occurs
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Contact your healthcare provider before trying to get pregnant.
Explanation of the correct answer:
C. Contact your healthcare provider before trying to get pregnant.
Phenytoin, an anticonvulsant medication, has teratogenic effects and can harm a developing fetus, especially during the first trimester. Women taking phenytoin who are planning to become pregnant should consult with their healthcare provider to discuss potential risks and alternative medications. It is important to assess the risk of birth defects and consider a medication regimen adjustment if necessary.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Decrease fluid intake when taking this medication.
There is no indication to decrease fluid intake when taking phenytoin. On the contrary, maintaining adequate hydration is important to prevent potential side effects, such as kidney stones, which may occur due to the medication.
B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
Phenytoin can be taken with or without food. However, it is best to take it consistently the same way (either always with food or always without food) to ensure stable absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach is not required and could cause gastrointestinal irritation in some people.
D. Stop taking the medication if hirsutism occurs.
Hirsutism (excessive hair growth) is a potential side effect of phenytoin, but it is not an indication to stop the medication without consulting a healthcare provider. If this side effect occurs, the client should notify the provider, who can assess the need for continued use of phenytoin or consider other treatment options. Stopping the medication without medical guidance could lead to an increase in seizures.
An adult client newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism begins a new prescription for levothyroxine. The client tells the nurse about wanting to lose weight. The client's current body mass index (BMI) is 32 kg/m2 on the medical record. How should the nurse respond?
Reference Range
BMI [18.5 to 24.9 kg/m2]
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Encourage a well balanced diet that is low in fat and promotes gradual weight loss.
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Explain the need to monitor the capillary glucose level when reducing the caloric intake.
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Explain that the client will begin to lose weight after starting the new prescription.
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Advise the client the BMI is within normal limits and weight loss may be unhealthy.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Encourage a well-balanced diet that is low in fat and promotes gradual weight loss.
Why this is the correct answer:
The most appropriate response is to encourage the client to adopt a well-balanced diet that promotes gradual weight loss. While hypothyroidism can contribute to weight gain, starting levothyroxine therapy may help normalize thyroid function and metabolism, leading to slow, gradual weight loss over time. However, it is essential for the client to focus on healthy eating habits and physical activity as part of a sustainable weight loss plan, rather than expecting rapid or drastic weight loss. A gradual weight loss approach is safer and more effective for long-term health.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Explain the need to monitor the capillary glucose level when reducing the caloric intake.
Although monitoring blood glucose is important for clients with diabetes, there is no indication that this client has diabetes. This answer is irrelevant and not aligned with the client's current concern about weight loss in the context of hypothyroidism and the new prescription for levothyroxine.
C. Explain that the client will begin to lose weight after starting the new prescription.
While levothyroxine therapy can improve metabolism and may eventually lead to gradual weight loss, it is not an immediate effect. This could create unrealistic expectations, as weight loss typically occurs over time with the proper adjustment of thyroid hormone levels. The nurse should not promise immediate weight loss but rather focus on healthy lifestyle changes that will support gradual weight loss.
D. Advise the client the BMI is within normal limits and weight loss may be unhealthy.
A BMI of 32 kg/m² is classified as obese, not within normal limits. Therefore, this statement is incorrect. Weight loss is actually advisable for this client to reduce the risks associated with obesity, such as cardiovascular disease and metabolic issues. It is important to address weight management through a healthy approach rather than discouraging weight loss altogether.
A home-bound client with severe, end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being visited by the home health nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching.plan
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Use the beta-agonist inhalers every 2 hours, around the clock.
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Use pursed-lip breathing techniques continually, around the clock.
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Use oxygen continuously, at the lowest dose possible.
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Cluster activities together, first thing in the morning.
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Use oxygen continuously, at the lowest dose possible.
Why this is the correct answer:
For a client with severe, end-stage COPD, continuous low-flow oxygen therapy is often essential to maintain adequate oxygenation and reduce the risk of hypoxemia. However, oxygen must be administered at the lowest effective dose, typically 1–2 L/min via nasal cannula, because high oxygen concentrations can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe in patients who retain CO₂ (hypercapnia). The goal is to relieve hypoxia while avoiding CO₂ retention and respiratory acidosis. This is a cornerstone of advanced COPD management and is both safe and evidence-based.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Use the beta-agonist inhalers every 2 hours, around the clock.
Beta-agonist inhalers (e.g., albuterol) are rescue medications, typically used as needed for acute dyspnea or bronchospasm, not around the clock. Using them every 2 hours continuously would increase the risk of side effects like tachycardia, tremors, and palpitations, and is not aligned with proper medication protocol.
B. Use pursed-lip breathing techniques continually, around the clock.
Pursed-lip breathing is a valuable technique to help manage dyspnea and improve CO₂ elimination, but it should be used during episodes of shortness of breath, not continually. Continuous use is impractical and unnecessary, and may actually cause fatigue in a severely ill client.
D. Cluster activities together, first thing in the morning.
This is not appropriate for a client with end-stage COPD, who has limited energy reserves and often experiences early morning fatigue and oxygen desaturation. Instead of clustering, the nurse should instruct the client to pace activities throughout the day, with adequate rest between tasks to avoid exertional dyspnea and exhaustion.
A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic because the baby does not sleep through the night. Which finding is most significant in planning care for this family
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The diaper area shows severe skin breakdown.
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The mother is a single parent and lives with her parents.
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The infant's formula has been changed twice.
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The mother reports the baby is irritable during feedings.
Explanation
Correct Answer A. The diaper area shows severe skin breakdown.
Why this is the correct answer:
A. The diaper area shows severe skin breakdown.
Severe diaper rash indicates a physical problem that can cause significant discomfort and pain. For a 3-month-old, this pain may explain why the infant wakes frequently at night and cannot settle. Addressing this skin breakdown is critical not only to relieve discomfort and restore sleep but also to prevent complications such as infection. Immediate intervention to treat the diaper area is essential in planning care.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. The mother is a single parent and lives with her parents.
Although social factors influence caregiving, this does not directly explain the infant’s sleep disturbance. The most pressing issue is the infant’s physical discomfort, which needs immediate treatment before addressing family structure.
C. The infant's formula has been changed twice.
Frequent formula changes may cause mild gastrointestinal upset, but this is less urgent than severe skin breakdown. Formula changes should be reviewed, but they are not the most significant factor contributing to disrupted sleep in this situation.
D. The mother reports the baby is irritable during feedings.
Feeding irritability is concerning and warrants follow-up, but it is not as urgent as severe skin breakdown. Pain from skin irritation is more likely to cause immediate and ongoing distress, leading to poor sleep, making option A the priority.
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the cardiac unit with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L (128 mmol/L). The client is instructed to limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day, as prescribed, The client's serum sodium level the following day is 122 mEq/L (122 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse implement
Reference Range
Sodium [136 to 145 mEq/L (136 to 145 mmol/L)]:
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Consult with the healthcare provider to increase the client's allowable fluid intake
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Explain that the fluid restriction has restored the client's electrolyte levels.
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Encourage the client to add salt to the foods on each of the hospital meal trays.
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Reteach the client about the need to adhere to the prescribed fluid restrictions.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Consult with the healthcare provider to increase the client's allowable fluid intake.
Why this is the correct answer:
The client’s serum sodium level has continued to decrease from 128 mEq/L to 122 mEq/L, which indicates worsening hyponatremia (low sodium levels). Fluid restriction is a common management strategy for heart failure, but the continuing decline in sodium levels suggests that the client may not be receiving adequate treatment. In such cases, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider to reevaluate the fluid restriction and potentially adjust the plan of care. This may involve modifying fluid intake, adjusting medications, or considering other interventions such as sodium replacement or diuretics.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Explain that the fluid restriction has restored the client's electrolyte levels.
The client's serum sodium level has decreased, not increased. This response would be incorrect because the fluid restriction has not restored the electrolyte balance as intended. In fact, it appears to have contributed to further electrolyte imbalance, so this explanation is not accurate.
C. Encourage the client to add salt to the foods on each of the hospital meal trays.
Encouraging the client to add salt to their food is not recommended in this situation because the client is experiencing hyponatremia. Increasing sodium intake without proper medical oversight could worsen the condition. In fact, managing hyponatremia typically involves restricting fluid intake and monitoring electrolyte levels, not increasing dietary sodium.
D. Reteach the client about the need to adhere to the prescribed fluid restrictions.
While it is important to ensure the client understands the fluid restriction regimen, the client's sodium levels have continued to decrease despite the restriction, suggesting that the current plan may not be effective. Re-teaching fluid restriction without reassessing the overall treatment plan or consulting the healthcare provider may not address the root cause of the problem.
A client newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism tells the nurse a plan to take the thyroid hormone replacement therapy until the thyroid gland returns to its normal size. How should the nurse respond
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Emphasize to the client that hormone replacement therapy is a lifelong need.
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Remind the client to come for regular checkups to assess the size of the gland.
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Assure the client that once surgery is performed, the giand will shrink rapidly.
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Advise the client that serum hormone levels are more important than gland size.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Emphasize to the client that hormone replacement therapy is a lifelong need.
Explanation of the correct answer:
A. Emphasize to the client that hormone replacement therapy is a lifelong need:
Hypothyroidism is a chronic condition, and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is required for life to maintain normal metabolic function. The thyroid gland may not "return to normal size" even with treatment, as the condition often results from an underactive thyroid, and replacement therapy compensates for the lack of hormone production. The nurse should educate the client about the need for lifelong medication to manage the condition and avoid complications.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Remind the client to come for regular checkups to assess the size of the gland:
While regular checkups are important to monitor thyroid function (via blood tests), assessing the size of the thyroid gland is not the most critical aspect of managing hypothyroidism. The primary focus should be on the client’s hormone levels, not the size of the thyroid gland.
C. Assure the client that once surgery is performed, the gland will shrink rapidly:
Surgery is generally not required for most cases of hypothyroidism. The treatment of choice is thyroid hormone replacement therapy. This option is inaccurate because it implies surgery is commonly needed, which is not typically the case for hypothyroidism, unless it is due to a large goiter or thyroid cancer.
D. Advise the client that serum hormone levels are more important than gland size:
While serum thyroid hormone levels are crucial for managing hypothyroidism, the nurse should also explain that thyroid hormone replacement therapy is necessary for lifelong management. The size of the gland is not as relevant as ensuring proper hormone levels for normal metabolic function.
The nurse observes that bloody drainage is trickling from under the dressing of a client who had a thyroidectomy yesterday. Which action should the nurse take
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Assess the client's ability to swallow.
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Apply pressure to client's incision.
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Remove the dressing and apply adhesive strips.
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Reinforce the dressing with sterile gauze.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Apply pressure to the client's incision.
Why this is the correct answer:
After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of bleeding due to the surgical manipulation of the thyroid gland, which is highly vascular. Applying gentle pressure to the incision can help control the bleeding by promoting clot formation and reducing the flow of blood. If there is persistent or increasing bleeding, applying direct pressure will help manage the situation and prevent further complications. If the bleeding continues despite pressure, the nurse must immediately notify the healthcare provider.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Assess the client's ability to swallow.
While swallowing difficulties can occur after thyroidectomy due to edema or nerve damage, the priority in this case is addressing active bleeding. Assessing the client's swallowing ability does not address the acute problem of bleeding and should be done after managing the bleeding.
C. Remove the dressing and apply adhesive strips.
Removing the dressing prematurely could disrupt the clotting process and expose the wound to the risk of infection. The dressing should be left intact until bleeding is under control, and adhesive strips are generally used after the wound has healed somewhat, not immediately after surgery when the risk of reopening the wound is higher.
D. Reinforce the dressing with sterile gauze.
While reinforcing the dressing may seem like a reasonable choice, direct pressure to the incision is a more immediate action to control bleeding. Reinforcing the dressing without applying pressure may not effectively stop the bleeding and could delay necessary intervention.
An older adult with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was recently admitted to the hospital with heart failure (HF) Which actions should the nurse take in providing care
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Monitor electrolyte values
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Encourage increased fluid intake.
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Maintain pulse oximeter.
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Provide assistance with mobility.
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Offer low residue snacks.
Explanation
Correct Answers:
A. Monitor electrolyte values.
C. Maintain pulse oximeter.
D. Provide assistance with mobility.
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Explanation of the correct answers:
A. Monitor electrolyte values:
Electrolyte imbalances are common in both COPD and heart failure. Heart failure can lead to fluid retention, which can affect electrolyte balance, particularly sodium and potassium levels. COPD may also lead to respiratory acidosis, which can impact potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes ensures that the nurse can detect and manage any imbalances early, as they can affect cardiac function and respiratory status.
C. Maintain pulse oximeter:
Patients with COPD are at risk for hypoxemia, especially when hospitalized due to comorbid conditions such as heart failure. A pulse oximeter allows continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation levels, which is critical in managing both conditions. It will help the nurse assess the need for oxygen therapy and prevent complications related to low oxygen levels.
D. Provide assistance with mobility:
Heart failure and COPD can both cause fatigue and limit mobility due to shortness of breath, weakness, and fluid retention. Providing assistance with mobility helps the client perform daily activities safely and reduces the risk of falls or other injuries. It also prevents the client from overexerting themselves, which can exacerbate both conditions.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Encourage increased fluid intake:
In heart failure, fluid retention is a concern because the heart is unable to pump efficiently, leading to fluid buildup in the body. Encouraging increased fluid intake can exacerbate fluid overload and worsen symptoms of heart failure, such as edema and shortness of breath. Therefore, fluid intake should be carefully monitored and restricted as prescribed.
E. Offer low residue snacks:
Low residue diets are typically recommended for clients with gastrointestinal issues, such as inflammatory bowel disease or after certain surgeries, to reduce bowel movement frequency. However, this is not relevant for a client with COPD and heart failure unless there is a specific gastrointestinal concern. The focus for these clients should be on managing fluid and electrolyte balance, maintaining oxygenation, and supporting mobility.
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Frequently Asked Question
This guide is perfect for nursing students preparing for the HESI Medical-Surgical 1 exam—and anyone wanting to boost their clinical reasoning and NCLEX readiness.
Yes. Whether you’re new to HESI or looking to retake, this guide is built to simplify complex concepts and sharpen your clinical judgment.
Expect heavy focus on cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, and endocrine systems—plus medication safety, clinical reasoning, lab value interpretation, and emergency response.
Absolutely. All content is aligned with NCLEX-RN guidelines and the latest HESI exam blueprints, focusing on safe, evidence-based adult patient care.
Yes! The questions are designed to reflect HESI exam structure, prioritization formats, and NCLEX-style thinking—giving you the confidence to answer with accuracy under pressure.
You’ll get access to 150+ exam-style questions covering fluid balance, perioperative care, infection control, and system-specific conditions—plus detailed rationales and real-world clinical scenarios.