Hesi Medical Surgical 1
Access The Exact Questions for Hesi Medical Surgical 1
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for Hesi Medical Surgical 1 on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free Hesi Medical Surgical 1 Questions
A client with Alzheimer's disease has developed altered thought processes and is having difficulty performing self-care activities of daily living (ADL). Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care
-
Encourage the client to perform self-care as much as possible.
-
Ask a family member to participate in the client's ADL care.
-
Delegate the client's ADL care consistently to the same caregivers.
-
Provide client care by the nursing staff that includes ADL care.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Encourage the client to perform self-care as much as possible.
Explanation of the correct answer:
A. Encourage the client to perform self-care as much as possible:
In Alzheimer's disease, one of the main goals of care is to preserve the client’s remaining abilities for as long as possible. Encouraging the client to participate in self-care, even in a limited capacity, promotes a sense of independence and dignity, which can help slow functional decline. By supporting the client to perform these activities (with modifications like simplifying steps or using visual cues), the nurse helps maintain the client’s autonomy and quality of life. It is important to balance support with encouragement to avoid overwhelming the client.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Ask a family member to participate in the client's ADL care:
While involving family members can be beneficial, relying too heavily on them may lead to inconsistency or strain on the family. Family members are not always trained to handle all aspects of care, and it may be difficult for them to be present consistently. The goal should be to create a stable caregiving environment that includes both professional caregivers and family members, but not as a primary means of support.
C. Delegate the client's ADL care consistently to the same caregivers:
While consistency is important in the caregiving team, this option does not directly support the client’s participation in self-care, which is a key aspect of care in Alzheimer's disease. The focus should be on promoting the client’s independence, where possible, rather than delegating all ADL care to caregivers.
D. Provide client care by the nursing staff that includes ADL care:
Similar to option C, this answer suggests that the nurse take over the ADL care entirely, which may not be the best approach for a client with Alzheimer's. Encouraging participation in self-care, even in a limited way, is preferred. Over-reliance on nursing staff for all care may result in a loss of independence and a decline in the client’s functional abilities.
An older adult resident of a long-term care facility was admitted to the hospital with a fractured right hip following a fall. Three days after admission the client develops confusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse
-
Concentrated urine output.
-
Complains of head pain.
-
Serum glucose level 160mg/dL (8.88 mmol/L).
-
Bruising on both arms.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Complains of head pain.
Explanation of the correct answer:
Confusion in an older adult, especially after a fall and hip fracture, can be indicative of a serious complication such as a head injury, which may have occurred during the fall or from subsequent trauma. The complaint of head pain could suggest a concussion, subdural hematoma, or another intracranial injury that requires immediate attention. Head pain, particularly after a fall, warrants urgent evaluation to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions such as intracranial bleeding or increased intracranial pressure.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Concentrated urine output:
Concentrated urine output may suggest dehydration, especially in older adults, but it does not indicate a life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention. While dehydration should be addressed, it is not as urgent as potential head trauma, which can have more severe and immediate consequences.
C. Serum glucose level 160 mg/dL (8.88 mmol/L):
A serum glucose level of 160 mg/dL is elevated, but it is not dangerously high and may not require immediate intervention unless the client has diabetes and is at risk for diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state. A blood glucose level of 160 mg/dL is not life-threatening on its own, and interventions such as adjusting insulin or diet can be addressed as part of routine care, rather than requiring immediate action.
D. Bruising on both arms:
Bruising on both arms, especially in the context of a recent fall and hip fracture, may be due to the injury itself or from the physical handling of the client. However, bruising alone is not immediately life-threatening and does not require urgent intervention unless accompanied by other signs of significant internal injury, such as swelling or severe pain. The priority here is to address the confusion and the possible head injury.
The nurse is caring for a term infant immediately following delivery. Which action should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of cold stress
-
Bathe the newborn in warm water and swaddle in 2 blankets.
-
Place the newborn on the radiant warmer.
-
Dry off the newborn and place skin-to-skin.
-
Maintain a room temperature above 70° F (21.1° C).
Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Dry off the newborn and place skin-to-skin.
Why this is the correct answer:
C. Dry off the newborn and place skin-to-skin.
Immediately after birth, newborns are wet with amniotic fluid and lose heat rapidly through evaporation. The best evidence-based intervention to reduce cold stress is to thoroughly dry the infant and initiate skin-to-skin contact with the mother, covering both with a warm blanket. This promotes thermoregulation, stabilizes vital signs, and encourages bonding and breastfeeding.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Bathe the newborn in warm water and swaddle in 2 blankets.
Bathing immediately after birth increases heat loss through evaporation and convection, placing the newborn at risk for hypothermia. Bathing is delayed until the infant is stable and warm.
B. Place the newborn on the radiant warmer.
A radiant warmer is used if the infant cannot maintain temperature or skin-to-skin is not possible. While effective, skin-to-skin with drying is the preferred first action unless contraindicated.
D. Maintain a room temperature above 70° F (21.1° C).
Room temperature alone does not adequately prevent heat loss in a wet newborn. Direct measures such as drying and skin-to-skin are more effective.
A client is admitted to the medical unit during an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It is most important to report which assessment finding to the healthcare provider
-
Joint pain.
-
Muscle atrophy
-
Hematuria.
-
Low grade fever.
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Hematuria.
Explanation of the correct answer:
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including the kidneys. Hematuria (presence of blood in the urine) may indicate lupus nephritis, a serious complication of SLE that can lead to kidney damage. Hematuria should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider because it requires further evaluation and management to prevent long-term kidney damage or renal failure.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Joint pain:
Joint pain is a common symptom of SLE and occurs in many clients during disease exacerbations. While joint pain can be distressing and require pain management, it is not as urgent as hematuria, which suggests potential renal involvement. Joint pain is typically not life-threatening, so it does not warrant immediate reporting to the healthcare provider unless other concerning symptoms are present.
B. Muscle atrophy:
Muscle atrophy can occur over time due to inactivity or corticosteroid use, both of which can be related to SLE management. While muscle atrophy should be addressed in terms of rehabilitation and physical therapy, it is not as acute or serious as hematuria, which suggests an active disease complication.
D. Low grade fever:
A low-grade fever can occur during a flare-up of SLE, as the immune system is activated. While it is important to monitor, a low-grade fever alone is typically not a critical finding unless it is accompanied by other severe symptoms, such as signs of infection or systemic involvement. Fever is common during exacerbations but is not as urgent as hematuria, which can indicate more severe organ involvement.
Which explanation should the nurse give to a male client on why benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) often causes urinary retention
-
Abnormal growth results in loss of bladder muscle tone.
-
The enlarged gland compresses the urethra.
-
Nerve compression decreases the sensation that the bladder is full.
-
Inflammation causes spasms of the gland.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: The enlarged gland compresses the urethra.
Explanation of the correct answer:
B. The enlarged gland compresses the urethra:
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which surrounds the urethra. As the prostate enlarges, it can compress the urethra, the tube through which urine flows from the bladder. This compression can obstruct the flow of urine, leading to difficulty initiating urination, weak urine stream, and urinary retention. The primary mechanism behind urinary retention in BPH is this mechanical obstruction caused by the enlarged prostate.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Abnormal growth results in loss of bladder muscle tone:
BPH does not directly cause the loss of bladder muscle tone. While bladder wall changes may occur in response to chronic obstruction, the primary cause of urinary retention in BPH is the mechanical compression of the urethra, not a loss of bladder muscle tone.
C. Nerve compression decreases the sensation that the bladder is full:
Although nerve involvement can be a factor in some other bladder disorders, BPH does not typically cause nerve compression that decreases bladder sensation. The main issue in BPH is the physical compression of the urethra by the enlarged prostate, not nerve compression leading to a lack of bladder sensation.
D. Inflammation causes spasms of the gland:
Inflammation is not a primary cause of urinary retention in BPH. While inflammation can occur in the prostate, the key issue in BPH is the physical enlargement of the gland, which causes urethral compression. The presence of inflammation or gland spasms is not the primary mechanism behind urinary retention in this condition
The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) who was admitted to the hospital with severe symptom exacerbation. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to review with the client
-
Decrease daily intake of sodium in diet.
-
Take prescribed corticosteroid accurately.
-
Avoid extreme environmental temperatures.
-
Use a walker when weakness occurs.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Take prescribed corticosteroid accurately.
Why this is the correct answer:
In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), corticosteroids are often prescribed to help control inflammation and suppress the immune response. Adherence to the prescribed corticosteroid regimen is crucial because inconsistent use or stopping the medication abruptly can lead to flare-ups of symptoms and potentially worsen the condition. Furthermore, corticosteroids can have significant side effects, such as immune suppression, osteoporosis, and hyperglycemia, so it is important for the patient to follow the prescribed dosage and tapering plan under the guidance of their healthcare provider. The nurse must emphasize the importance of taking the medication accurately and regularly to help maintain disease control and minimize complications.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Decrease daily intake of sodium in diet.
While reducing sodium intake may be beneficial for general health and for patients with conditions like hypertension or edema, it is not the most urgent issue for a client with SLE after a severe exacerbation. The priority after discharge is adherence to the prescribed corticosteroid regimen, which has the most immediate impact on managing the condition. Dietary changes can be discussed at a later time, especially when the client is stable.
C. Avoid extreme environmental temperatures.
Extreme temperatures, both heat and cold, can exacerbate SLE symptoms, particularly in triggering flares. While this is an important lifestyle adjustment for SLE patients, it is not as critical to emphasize immediately after a severe exacerbation as the proper use of corticosteroids. Ensuring the client understands how to manage their medication regimen is the first priority to prevent further complications or flare-ups.
D. Use a walker when weakness occurs.
While weakness is a common symptom of SLE, especially during flare-ups, the primary concern in discharge teaching should be ensuring the client is stable in terms of medication management and preventing further flare-ups. Using a walker is important for safety if the client experiences muscle weakness, but it is secondary to understanding how to properly manage medications to control the underlying disease.
The nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin IV to a client after the delivery of her infant. Which outcome should the nurse expect from the administration of oxytocin
-
Activation of the let down reflex.
-
Alert the neonatal team and prepare for neonatal resuscitation.
-
Return of the uterus to prepregnancy size.
-
Stimulation of uterine contractions.
Explanation
Correct Answer D. Stimulation of uterine contractions.
Why this is the correct answer:
D. Stimulation of uterine contractions.
Oxytocin is administered postpartum to stimulate uterine contractions, which compress uterine blood vessels and reduce the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. These contractions help the uterus remain firm, minimize bleeding, and promote placental separation. The drug’s primary role in this context is to ensure effective contraction of the uterus immediately after delivery, making this the expected and desired outcome.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Activation of the let down reflex.
The let down reflex is controlled by oxytocin released naturally during breastfeeding, but IV oxytocin is not administered for this purpose in the postpartum setting.
B. Expulsion of the placenta.
While oxytocin may assist with placental expulsion, it is primarily used to stimulate contractions to prevent hemorrhage after delivery. The placenta typically delivers spontaneously or with minimal intervention.
C. Return of the uterus to prepregnancy size.
This process, called involution, occurs gradually over several weeks postpartum, not immediately after oxytocin administration. Oxytocin aids involution indirectly but does not cause immediate return to prepregnancy size.
An older adult client is brought to the emergency department by an adult child. The client reports experiencing abdominal pain and the inability to urinate, except for small amounts of incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement first
-
Insert an indwelling catheter to drain bladder of retained urine.
-
Scan bladder to determine the amount of urine in the bladder.
-
Administer IV pain medication for ongoing abdominal pain.
-
Obtain a urine sample from incontinence for culture and sensitivity.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Scan bladder to determine the amount of urine in the bladder.
Explanation of the correct answer:
The first action the nurse should take is to assess the bladder's fullness by performing a bladder scan. This non-invasive procedure will determine whether there is urinary retention, which could be causing the abdominal pain and incontinence. Knowing the amount of urine in the bladder will guide further interventions. If the bladder is distended with urine, further actions, such as catheterization, may be necessary. However, confirming the bladder volume is critical before taking any invasive steps.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Insert an indwelling catheter to drain bladder of retained urine:
While urinary retention is a likely cause of the symptoms, the nurse should first assess the bladder's fullness before inserting a catheter. Inserting a catheter without confirmation could lead to unnecessary interventions or complications. A bladder scan should be performed first to ensure that urinary retention is the cause.
C. Administer IV pain medication for ongoing abdominal pain:
Although managing pain is important, it is essential to determine the underlying cause of the pain first. Administering pain medication without understanding the cause of the pain (such as urinary retention) could mask symptoms and hinder further assessment. The nurse should first assess the bladder and the potential need for catheterization before administering pain medication.
D. Obtain a urine sample from incontinence for culture and sensitivity:
Obtaining a urine sample is typically done to check for infection, but in this situation, the priority is to first assess the bladder and manage any retention. If urinary retention is present, it should be addressed promptly to relieve pain and discomfort. A urine sample can be obtained later if an infection is suspected.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is at risk for malignant hyperthermia. The client develops muscle rigidity and the body temperature increases from 100° F to 103°F (37.8° C to 39.4° C) within one hour. In addition to contacting the healthcare provider, which additional action should the nurse take
-
Implement protective isolation precautions:
-
Provide warming blankets to prevent chilling.
-
Review most recent white blood cell count (WBC).
-
Monitor cardiac rhythm and vital signs continuously.
Explanation
Correct Answer D: Monitor cardiac rhythm and vital signs continuously.
Explanation of the correct answer:
Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a rare, life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetic agents, characterized by rapid onset of hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and autonomic instability. Once suspected, immediate action is crucial. Continuous monitoring of vital signs, including cardiac rhythm, is essential to detect and manage complications such as arrhythmias, which can be a direct result of MH. Early identification of arrhythmias and other vital sign changes allows for timely intervention, which is critical to the client’s survival.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Implement protective isolation precautions:
Protective isolation is not necessary for malignant hyperthermia. This condition is not contagious and does not require isolation. The priority is addressing the physiological changes associated with the reaction.
B. Provide warming blankets to prevent chilling:
Providing warming blankets would be inappropriate because the client’s body temperature is rising. In fact, MH leads to hyperthermia, so the nurse should focus on cooling the patient, not warming them. Cooling measures like ice packs or cold IV fluids are essential.
C. Review most recent white blood cell count (WBC):
While the WBC count can provide information about infection or inflammation, it is not immediately relevant in the management of malignant hyperthermia. The key interventions are related to cooling the patient and addressing muscle rigidity and metabolic derangements, not reviewing WBC.
Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with early stage Alzheimer's Disease. The client's daughter tells the nurse that she plans to start administering the drug when her mother's symptoms are no longer manageable, in hopes that her mother will not have to go to a nursing home. How should the nurse respond
-
Assess the client's current mental status before deciding to support the decision
-
Explain that the drug should be used early in the course of the disease process.
-
Affirm the decision to use the medication when the symptoms start to worsen.
-
Confirm that the daughter is aware of the progressive nature of the disease.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Explain that the drug should be used early in the course of the disease process.
Explanation of the correct answer:
B. Explain that the drug should be used early in the course of the disease process:
Rivastigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to treat mild to moderate symptoms of Alzheimer's disease. Research shows that starting the medication early in the disease course can help manage symptoms more effectively and may slow down the progression of cognitive decline. The nurse should educate the daughter that starting treatment early, when symptoms are still manageable, is crucial to maximizing the potential benefits of the medication.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Assess the client's current mental status before deciding to support the decision:
While it is important to assess the client’s current mental status, this response does not directly address the timing of medication administration. The decision about when to start rivastigmine should be based on the stage of the disease, not solely on current symptoms. The nurse should focus on educating the daughter about the benefits of early intervention.
C. Affirm the decision to use the medication when the symptoms start to worsen:
Delaying the start of treatment until symptoms worsen may reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Early intervention is recommended, as cholinesterase inhibitors like rivastigmine work best when the disease is in its earlier stages. Therefore, it is not advisable to wait until symptoms worsen before starting the medication.
D. Confirm that the daughter is aware of the progressive nature of the disease:
Although it is important for the daughter to understand that Alzheimer's is a progressive disease, this response does not directly address the timing of medication use. The key point is that rivastigmine should be started early in the course of the disease to help manage symptoms more effectively.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .
Frequently Asked Question
This guide is perfect for nursing students preparing for the HESI Medical-Surgical 1 exam—and anyone wanting to boost their clinical reasoning and NCLEX readiness.
Yes. Whether you’re new to HESI or looking to retake, this guide is built to simplify complex concepts and sharpen your clinical judgment.
Expect heavy focus on cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, and endocrine systems—plus medication safety, clinical reasoning, lab value interpretation, and emergency response.
Absolutely. All content is aligned with NCLEX-RN guidelines and the latest HESI exam blueprints, focusing on safe, evidence-based adult patient care.
Yes! The questions are designed to reflect HESI exam structure, prioritization formats, and NCLEX-style thinking—giving you the confidence to answer with accuracy under pressure.
You’ll get access to 150+ exam-style questions covering fluid balance, perioperative care, infection control, and system-specific conditions—plus detailed rationales and real-world clinical scenarios.