PSYCH 111: Introduction to Psychology: Week 3: Chapter 15 Quizzes: Psychological Disorders

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Free PSYCH 111: Introduction to Psychology: Week 3: Chapter 15 Quizzes: Psychological Disorders Questions

1.

Which of the following best explains conditioning theories of panic disorder?

  • Panic attacks result from sudden and unpredictable life events without internal triggers

  • Panic attacks are learned responses where normal bodily sensations become conditioned stimuli for fear

  • Panic attacks are entirely caused by chemical imbalances in norepinephrine and serotonin

  • Panic attacks occur only when reinforcement is withdrawn after repeated stressful experiences

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Panic attacks are learned responses where normal bodily sensations become conditioned stimuli for fear

Explanation:

Conditioning theories suggest that panic disorder develops when mild bodily sensations, such as a rapid heartbeat or shortness of breath, become paired with extreme fear through classical conditioning. These sensations act as conditioned stimuli that trigger panic attacks because they resemble the feelings associated with anxiety or danger. Over time, individuals may become hyperaware of such sensations, increasing the likelihood of recurrent panic attacks.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Panic attacks result from sudden and unpredictable life events without internal triggers

This ignores the internal conditioning process, focusing only on external events, which is not the basis of conditioning theory.

C. Panic attacks are entirely caused by chemical imbalances in norepinephrine and serotonin


This reflects a biological explanation, not a conditioning theory, which emphasizes learned associations.

D. Panic attacks occur only when reinforcement is withdrawn after repeated stressful experiences


This describes operant conditioning principles, not classical conditioning, which underlies conditioning theories of panic disorder.


2.

Which of the following best describes schizophrenia?

  • A disorder characterized by multiple distinct personalities within the same individual

  • A psychological disorder involving major disturbances in thought, perception, emotion, and behavior, impairing daily functioning

  • A mood disorder marked by alternating episodes of depression and mania

  • A condition involving excessive worry and anxiety about everyday life

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. A psychological disorder involving major disturbances in thought, perception, emotion, and behavior, impairing daily functioning

Explanation:

Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that affects about 1% of the population, typically emerging in early adulthood. It is characterized by significant impairments in thought processes, perception, emotions, and behaviors, which interfere with the ability to work, maintain relationships, and care for oneself. Unlike dissociative identity disorder, schizophrenia does not involve multiple personalities. Individuals with schizophrenia often experience social and occupational difficulties and may require frequent hospitalizations despite treatment.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. A disorder characterized by multiple distinct personalities within the same individual

This describes dissociative identity disorder, not schizophrenia.

C. A mood disorder marked by alternating episodes of depression and mania


This describes bipolar disorder, not schizophrenia.

D. A condition involving excessive worry and anxiety about everyday life


This refers to generalized anxiety disorder, not schizophrenia.


3.

Which of the following best describes early warning signs of schizophrenia?

  • Temporary sadness and fatigue that resolve without intervention

  • Minor symptoms of psychosis such as unusual thoughts, paranoia, odd communication, and social decline

  • Occasional worry about school or work performance without functional impairment

  • Brief periods of irritability that do not affect daily life or relationships

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Minor symptoms of psychosis such as unusual thoughts, paranoia, odd communication, and social decline

Explanation:

Early warning signs of schizophrenia, also called prodromal symptoms, include unusual thought content, paranoia, odd communication patterns, declining social functioning, and difficulties at school or work. Identifying these signs in individuals, especially those with a genetic risk or history of substance abuse, allows for monitoring and early intervention to potentially prevent or mitigate the development of full-blown psychotic disorders. Early detection can improve long-term outcomes and quality of life.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Temporary sadness and fatigue that resolve without intervention

These are normal, transient experiences and do not indicate prodromal psychosis.

C. Occasional worry about school or work performance without functional impairment


Mild worry is typical and not a predictor of schizophrenia.

D. Brief periods of irritability that do not affect daily life or relationships


Short-term irritability is not specific or severe enough to be considered an early warning sign of schizophrenia.


4.

Which of the following best explains the genetic basis of schizophrenia?

  • Schizophrenia occurs randomly in the population with no familial influence

  • Having a parent or close relative with schizophrenia significantly increases the risk of developing the disorder

  • Schizophrenia is caused exclusively by environmental factors and is unrelated to genetics

  • Schizophrenia is equally likely to occur in individuals regardless of family history

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Having a parent or close relative with schizophrenia significantly increases the risk of developing the disorder

Explanation:

Research indicates that schizophrenia has a strong genetic component. The risk of developing schizophrenia is nearly six times higher for individuals with a parent who has the disorder. Moreover, the likelihood of developing schizophrenia increases with closer genetic relatedness to affected family members. These findings highlight the role of heredity, though environmental factors may also influence the onset and severity of symptoms.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Schizophrenia occurs randomly in the population with no familial influence

This is false; family and twin studies show significant hereditary risk.

C. Schizophrenia is caused exclusively by environmental factors and is unrelated to genetics


While environment plays a role, genetic factors strongly influence the risk of developing schizophrenia.

D. Schizophrenia is equally likely to occur in individuals regardless of family history


This is incorrect because family history is a major risk factor for schizophrenia.


5.

Antisocial personality disorder is associated with ________.

  • Emotional deficits

  • Memory deficits

  • Parental overprotection

  • Increased empathy

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Emotional deficits

Explanation:

Antisocial personality disorder (ASPD) is marked by a lack of regard for others’ rights and feelings. Individuals with ASPD show emotional deficits, including shallow emotions, lack of remorse, and an inability to empathize with others. These deficits contribute to manipulative, deceitful, and impulsive behaviors that harm others and violate social norms. Emotional impairments are central to the disorder, affecting interpersonal functioning and moral reasoning.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

B. Memory deficits

Memory impairments are not a defining feature of ASPD.

C. Parental overprotection


While upbringing may influence personality development, overprotection is not a core feature of ASPD.

D. Increased empathy


ASPD is characterized by reduced empathy, not increased empathy, which contributes to harmful behaviors toward others.


6.

Which of the following best explains the genetic and biological causes of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

  • OCD is caused only by learned behaviors and has no genetic or biological influence

  • OCD shows higher rates among close relatives and involves genes affecting serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate

  • OCD is entirely explained by environmental stressors without any hereditary factors

  • OCD is always inherited directly from one parent and shows identical rates in all twin studies

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. OCD shows higher rates among close relatives and involves genes affecting serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate

Explanation:

Research indicates that OCD has a moderate genetic component. Family studies show it is about five times more common among first-degree relatives of people with OCD. Twin studies further support this: identical twins have a concordance rate of about 57%, while fraternal twins have only 22%. Genetic studies suggest involvement of multiple genes that regulate neurotransmitters, including serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate. Although more research is needed, these findings support the role of heredity and neurobiology in OCD.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. OCD is caused only by learned behaviors and has no genetic or biological influence

This ignores clear evidence from family and twin studies that heredity and biology play a role.

C. OCD is entirely explained by environmental stressors without any hereditary factors


Environmental stressors may contribute, but genetics and neurotransmitter systems are significant factors.

D. OCD is always inherited directly from one parent and shows identical rates in all twin studies


This is inaccurate. Concordance rates in identical twins are not 100%, meaning environment also plays a role.


7.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between dysfunction and psychological disorder?

  • Any dysfunction automatically qualifies as a psychological disorder regardless of impact

  • Dysfunction becomes a disorder only when it causes harm or negative consequences judged by cultural standards

  • Dysfunction is unrelated to psychological disorders and only applies to physical illnesses

  • Dysfunction is defined solely by being statistically rare in the population

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Dysfunction becomes a disorder only when it causes harm or negative consequences judged by cultural standards

Explanation:

A dysfunction occurs when an internal mechanism, such as cognition or perception, fails to perform its intended role. However, dysfunction alone is not sufficient to define a psychological disorder. It must also be harmful, producing significant distress (like anxiety or depression) or impairing daily functioning in work, relationships, or other life areas. Cultural standards also influence what is considered harmful, making context an important factor in diagnosis.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Any dysfunction automatically qualifies as a psychological disorder regardless of impact

This is incorrect because dysfunction without harm does not necessarily indicate a disorder. Some dysfunctions may have no significant negative effects.

C. Dysfunction is unrelated to psychological disorders and only applies to physical illnesses


This is false because dysfunction in mental processes is central to psychological disorders. It is not limited to physical illness.

D. Dysfunction is defined solely by being statistically rare in the population


Rarity does not equal dysfunction. Some rare traits are harmless and even beneficial, meaning they are not disorders.


8.

Which of the following best explains the brain regions linked to depression?

  • Depression is caused only by the cerebellum, which regulates balance and coordination

  • Depression is associated with abnormal activity in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex, affecting emotion processing and regulation

  • Depression results solely from the hippocampus, which controls memory but not emotion

  • Depression is unrelated to brain activity and occurs only because of environmental stress

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Depression is associated with abnormal activity in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex, affecting emotion processing and regulation

Explanation:

Depression has been linked to abnormal functioning in several brain regions. The amygdala, responsible for assessing emotional significance and generating emotional responses, shows heightened activity in depression. The prefrontal cortex (PFC), which regulates and controls emotions, often shows reduced activity, impairing emotional regulation. Together, this imbalance contributes to persistent negative mood and difficulties managing emotional responses, highlighting the biological basis of depression.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Depression is caused only by the cerebellum, which regulates balance and coordination

The cerebellum controls motor coordination, not the emotional regulation implicated in depression.

C. Depression results solely from the hippocampus, which controls memory but not emotion


While the hippocampus plays a role in memory and may be affected, it is not the primary region linked to emotional regulation in depression.

D. Depression is unrelated to brain activity and occurs only because of environmental stress


This ignores strong evidence showing abnormal brain activity contributes significantly to depression.


9.

Which of the following best explains hopelessness theory of depression?

  • Depression develops when individuals perceive negative events as temporary and specific

  • Depression results from negative thinking styles that create a sense of hopelessness about future outcomes

  • Depression arises only from imbalances in serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain

  • Depression is caused exclusively by stressful life events without influence from cognition

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Depression results from negative thinking styles that create a sense of hopelessness about future outcomes

Explanation:

Hopelessness theory argues that depression is triggered when individuals interpret negative life events as having stable (“It’s never going to change”) and global (“It affects my whole life”) causes. This thinking pattern fosters hopelessness—the belief that desired outcomes will not occur and nothing can prevent unpleasant ones. This sense of hopelessness becomes the pathway to depression. The theory highlights how cognitive style, not just life events, shapes vulnerability to depression.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Depression develops when individuals perceive negative events as temporary and specific

This describes adaptive thinking, not the negative cognitive style linked to hopelessness and depression.

C. Depression arises only from imbalances in serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain


This reflects the biological perspective, not cognitive theories of depression.

D. Depression is caused exclusively by stressful life events without influence from cognition


This is incomplete. Hopelessness theory stresses that cognitive interpretation of events, not the events alone, leads to depression.


10.

Dissociative identity disorder mainly involves ________

  • Depersonalization

  • Derealization

  • Schizophrenia

  • Different personalities

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. Different personalities

Explanation:

Dissociative identity disorder (DID), formerly called multiple personality disorder, is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities within a single individual. These identities may have their own names, histories, and behaviors, and can take control of the person’s actions at different times. DID often develops as a response to severe trauma, allowing the person to dissociate from painful memories or experiences.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Depersonalization

Depersonalization involves feeling detached from oneself, not the presence of multiple distinct identities.

B. Derealization


Derealization involves feeling that the external world is unreal or distorted, not multiple personalities.

C. Schizophrenia


Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder involving disturbances in thought, perception, and behavior, not the existence of multiple identities.


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