PSYCH 111: Introduction to Psychology: Week 3: Chapter 15 Quizzes: Psychological Disorders
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Free PSYCH 111: Introduction to Psychology: Week 3: Chapter 15 Quizzes: Psychological Disorders Questions
Which of the following best defines a psychological disorder according to the American Psychiatric Association?
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A temporary change in mood that does not interfere with daily functioning
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A syndrome involving significant disturbance in cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior caused by dysfunction in mental processes
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A set of unusual habits that are different from social norms but not harmful
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A pattern of behavior that is always inherited and cannot be influenced by environment
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. A syndrome involving significant disturbance in cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior caused by dysfunction in mental processes
Explanation:
The American Psychiatric Association defines a psychological disorder as a syndrome marked by clinically significant disturbances in cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior. These disturbances reflect dysfunction in psychological, biological, or developmental processes. Importantly, a disorder is not just a temporary mood swing or harmless habit but something that impairs functioning and may require clinical attention. This broad definition emphasizes the interaction of multiple underlying processes that contribute to mental illness.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. A temporary change in mood that does not interfere with daily functioning
This is not considered a disorder because it is neither clinically significant nor impairing.
C. A set of unusual habits that are different from social norms but not harmful
Cultural differences or unusual habits do not automatically equal a disorder unless they cause dysfunction or distress.
D. A pattern of behavior that is always inherited and cannot be influenced by environment
This is incorrect because psychological disorders are influenced by both biological and environmental factors, not solely genetics.
One of the primary characteristics of autism spectrum disorder is ________.
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Bed-wetting
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Difficulty relating to others
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Short attention span
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Intense and inappropriate interest in others
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Difficulty relating to others
Explanation:
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by deficits in social interaction, communication, and repetitive behaviors or restricted interests. One of the hallmark features is difficulty relating to others, which may manifest as limited eye contact, lack of social reciprocity, preference for solitary activities, or difficulty understanding social cues. These social deficits appear early in life and significantly impact daily functioning and relationships.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Bed-wetting
Bed-wetting is not a core feature of ASD and may occur independently of the disorder.
C. Short attention span
While attention difficulties may co-occur with ASD, they are not a defining characteristic.
D. Intense and inappropriate interest in others
ASD typically involves reduced or atypical social interest, not heightened or inappropriate interest in others.
Which of the following best sums up major depressive disorder's (MDD) hallmark symptoms?
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Alternating periods of sadness and extreme elation
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Persistent depressed mood and loss of interest or pleasure in usual activities
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Intense fear of specific objects or situations, leading to avoidance
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Recurrent panic attacks followed by worry about future attacks
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Persistent depressed mood and loss of interest or pleasure in usual activities
Explanation:
According to the DSM-5, major depressive disorder is characterized by depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day, along with loss of interest or pleasure (anhedonia) in activities that were once enjoyable. This includes social events, hobbies, sports, sex, or family time. These symptoms are not brief or situational but are persistent and debilitating, often noticed by friends and family. MDD disrupts daily functioning and represents more than normal sadness or grief.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Alternating periods of sadness and extreme elation
This describes bipolar disorder, not major depressive disorder.
C. Intense fear of specific objects or situations, leading to avoidance
This characterizes specific phobias, not depression.
D. Recurrent panic attacks followed by worry about future attacks
This describes panic disorder, not major depressive disorder.
Which of the following best distinguishes the two general categories of mood disorders in the DSM-5?
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Depressive disorders are marked by persistent sadness, while bipolar disorders include both depression and mania
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Depressive disorders are defined only by anxiety, while bipolar disorders are defined only by irritability
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Depressive disorders are temporary mood swings, while bipolar disorders are rare and unrelated to mood
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Depressive disorders and bipolar disorders are both characterized exclusively by mania
Explanation
Correct Answer:
A. Depressive disorders are marked by persistent sadness, while bipolar disorders include both depression and mania
Explanation:
The DSM-5 identifies two primary categories of mood disorders. Depressive disorders are characterized mainly by persistent sadness, hopelessness, loss of interest, and decreased motivation. In contrast, bipolar and related disorders involve alternating episodes of depression and mania. Mania is marked by extreme elation, high energy, and risky behaviors. While depressive disorders are unipolar in nature, bipolar disorders combine both poles of mood disturbance, making mania the defining feature of this category.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
B. Depressive disorders are defined only by anxiety, while bipolar disorders are defined only by irritability
This is incorrect because anxiety is not the defining feature of depressive disorders, and bipolar disorders involve mania, not just irritability.
C. Depressive disorders are temporary mood swings, while bipolar disorders are rare and unrelated to mood
This is inaccurate. Depressive disorders involve long-lasting, disruptive symptoms, and bipolar disorders are mood-based, not unrelated to mood.
D. Depressive disorders and bipolar disorders are both characterized exclusively by mania
This is wrong because depressive disorders lack mania entirely. Mania is specific to bipolar and related disorders.
Which of the following best describes antisocial personality disorder (ASPD)?
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A disorder characterized by instability in relationships, self-image, and mood
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A disorder in which individuals show no regard for others’ rights or feelings, acting impulsively, deceitfully, and irresponsibly
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A disorder involving recurrent panic attacks and persistent worry about future attacks
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A disorder marked by excessive fear or anxiety about specific objects or social situations
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. A disorder in which individuals show no regard for others’ rights or feelings, acting impulsively, deceitfully, and irresponsibly
Explanation:
Antisocial personality disorder is marked by a pervasive disregard for the rights, feelings, and safety of others. Individuals with ASPD often engage in illegal acts, deceitful or manipulative behavior, impulsivity, irresponsibility, and aggression without remorse. They may display superficial charm and an inflated sense of self. The disorder can be identified in adulthood, though signs often appear earlier in life. Traits include antagonism (disregard for others, manipulativeness) and disinhibition (impulsivity, risk-taking), leading to harmful and socially disruptive behavior.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. A disorder characterized by instability in relationships, self-image, and mood
This describes borderline personality disorder, not antisocial personality disorder.
C. A disorder involving recurrent panic attacks and persistent worry about future attacks
This characterizes panic disorder, not ASPD.
D. A disorder marked by excessive fear or anxiety about specific objects or social situations
This describes specific phobias or social anxiety disorder, not antisocial personality disorder.
Which of the following best explains hopelessness theory of depression?
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Depression develops when individuals perceive negative events as temporary and specific
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Depression results from negative thinking styles that create a sense of hopelessness about future outcomes
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Depression arises only from imbalances in serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain
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Depression is caused exclusively by stressful life events without influence from cognition
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Depression results from negative thinking styles that create a sense of hopelessness about future outcomes
Explanation:
Hopelessness theory argues that depression is triggered when individuals interpret negative life events as having stable (“It’s never going to change”) and global (“It affects my whole life”) causes. This thinking pattern fosters hopelessness—the belief that desired outcomes will not occur and nothing can prevent unpleasant ones. This sense of hopelessness becomes the pathway to depression. The theory highlights how cognitive style, not just life events, shapes vulnerability to depression.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Depression develops when individuals perceive negative events as temporary and specific
This describes adaptive thinking, not the negative cognitive style linked to hopelessness and depression.
C. Depression arises only from imbalances in serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain
This reflects the biological perspective, not cognitive theories of depression.
D. Depression is caused exclusively by stressful life events without influence from cognition
This is incomplete. Hopelessness theory stresses that cognitive interpretation of events, not the events alone, leads to depression.
Which of the following best explains the impact of major depressive disorder (MDD) on a person’s life?
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MDD is a temporary sadness that rarely interferes with work, education, or health
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MDD is a serious condition that disrupts functioning, increases discrimination, and raises risk for physical illness
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MDD only affects emotions and has no connection to career, relationships, or physical health
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MDD is defined by alternating episodes of mania and depression that limit work or social opportunities
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. MDD is a serious condition that disrupts functioning, increases discrimination, and raises risk for physical illness
Explanation:
Major depressive disorder is a debilitating mental illness that profoundly affects quality of life. It can prevent individuals from maintaining employment, pursuing education, or sustaining relationships. Many sufferers face discrimination that further limits opportunities. Beyond emotional suffering, MDD is linked to physical health risks, including higher chances of developing heart disease and worsening outcomes in those already diagnosed with cardiovascular conditions. Hospitalization may be necessary in severe cases, highlighting its serious impact.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. MDD is a temporary sadness that rarely interferes with work, education, or health
This trivializes the disorder. MDD is persistent and seriously disrupts daily life.
C. MDD only affects emotions and has no connection to career, relationships, or physical health
This is incorrect. Research shows MDD affects multiple domains, including physical health.
D. MDD is defined by alternating episodes of mania and depression that limit work or social opportunities
This describes bipolar disorder, not major depressive disorder.
Which of the following best explains the genetic basis of schizophrenia?
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Schizophrenia occurs randomly in the population with no familial influence
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Having a parent or close relative with schizophrenia significantly increases the risk of developing the disorder
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Schizophrenia is caused exclusively by environmental factors and is unrelated to genetics
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Schizophrenia is equally likely to occur in individuals regardless of family history
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Having a parent or close relative with schizophrenia significantly increases the risk of developing the disorder
Explanation:
Research indicates that schizophrenia has a strong genetic component. The risk of developing schizophrenia is nearly six times higher for individuals with a parent who has the disorder. Moreover, the likelihood of developing schizophrenia increases with closer genetic relatedness to affected family members. These findings highlight the role of heredity, though environmental factors may also influence the onset and severity of symptoms.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Schizophrenia occurs randomly in the population with no familial influence
This is false; family and twin studies show significant hereditary risk.
C. Schizophrenia is caused exclusively by environmental factors and is unrelated to genetics
While environment plays a role, genetic factors strongly influence the risk of developing schizophrenia.
D. Schizophrenia is equally likely to occur in individuals regardless of family history
This is incorrect because family history is a major risk factor for schizophrenia.
Which of the following best describes subtypes of depression as listed in the DSM-5?
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Specific, independent disorders completely separate from major depressive disorder
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Specifiers that describe symptom patterns or periods such as seasonal pattern, peripartum onset, or persistent depressive disorder
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Labels used only for bipolar disorders, not depressive disorders
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Rare conditions that occur only in individuals with no prior history of depression
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Specifiers that describe symptom patterns or periods such as seasonal pattern, peripartum onset, or persistent depressive disorder
Explanation:
The DSM-5 outlines subtypes of depression known as specifiers, which are not independent disorders but labels that indicate specific patterns or timeframes of depressive symptoms. Examples include the seasonal pattern (depression occurring during certain times of the year, often winter), peripartum onset (depression during pregnancy or shortly after childbirth), and persistent depressive disorder (chronic low mood lasting at least two years). These specifiers help clinicians provide more accurate diagnosis and treatment planning.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Specific, independent disorders completely separate from major depressive disorder
This is incorrect because specifiers are not separate disorders but subtypes within depression.
C. Labels used only for bipolar disorders, not depressive disorders
This is false since specifiers are applied to depressive disorders as well.
D. Rare conditions that occur only in individuals with no prior history of depression
This is inaccurate. Specifiers can occur in individuals with ongoing or recurring depression and are not necessarily rare.
Which of the following best explains the genetic and biological causes of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
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OCD is caused only by learned behaviors and has no genetic or biological influence
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OCD shows higher rates among close relatives and involves genes affecting serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate
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OCD is entirely explained by environmental stressors without any hereditary factors
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OCD is always inherited directly from one parent and shows identical rates in all twin studies
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. OCD shows higher rates among close relatives and involves genes affecting serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate
Explanation:
Research indicates that OCD has a moderate genetic component. Family studies show it is about five times more common among first-degree relatives of people with OCD. Twin studies further support this: identical twins have a concordance rate of about 57%, while fraternal twins have only 22%. Genetic studies suggest involvement of multiple genes that regulate neurotransmitters, including serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate. Although more research is needed, these findings support the role of heredity and neurobiology in OCD.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. OCD is caused only by learned behaviors and has no genetic or biological influence
This ignores clear evidence from family and twin studies that heredity and biology play a role.
C. OCD is entirely explained by environmental stressors without any hereditary factors
Environmental stressors may contribute, but genetics and neurotransmitter systems are significant factors.
D. OCD is always inherited directly from one parent and shows identical rates in all twin studies
This is inaccurate. Concordance rates in identical twins are not 100%, meaning environment also plays a role.
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