PSYCH 111: Introduction to Psychology: Week 3: Chapter 15 Quizzes: Psychological Disorders
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Free PSYCH 111: Introduction to Psychology: Week 3: Chapter 15 Quizzes: Psychological Disorders Questions
Which of the following best reflects cognitive theories of depression?
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Depression is caused only by genetic inheritance and brain chemistry
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Depression is triggered by negative thoughts, self-evaluations, and expectations
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Depression is a temporary sadness caused by stressful but short-lived events
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Depression develops solely from abnormal activity in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Depression is triggered by negative thoughts, self-evaluations, and expectations
Explanation:
Cognitive theories emphasize the role of maladaptive thinking patterns in depression. According to this view, individuals develop depression because they hold persistent negative beliefs about themselves, the world, and the future (known as Beck’s cognitive triad). These distorted thoughts shape how people interpret events, leading to hopelessness and despair. Unlike biological theories, which focus on brain function, the cognitive approach highlights the role of interpretation and thought processes in maintaining depression.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Depression is caused only by genetic inheritance and brain chemistry
This describes the biological perspective, not the cognitive theory.
C. Depression is a temporary sadness caused by stressful but short-lived events
This oversimplifies depression, which is chronic and deeply tied to thought patterns, not just brief sadness.
D. Depression develops solely from abnormal activity in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex
This also reflects a biological model, not the cognitive theory that emphasizes negative thinking and expectations.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding suicide in the United States?
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Suicide is the leading cause of death for all ages
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Suicide was the 10th leading cause of death for all ages in 2010
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Suicide is extremely rare and does not rank among the top causes of death
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Suicide only affects people over the age of 65 and is negligible in younger populations
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Suicide was the 10th leading cause of death for all ages in 2010
Explanation:
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), suicide ranked as the 10th leading cause of death across all age groups in 2010. This highlights the significant public health impact of suicide and underscores the importance of prevention, early identification, and intervention. Suicide affects individuals of all ages and is a critical issue in both mental health and overall health policy.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Suicide is the leading cause of death for all ages
This is incorrect; suicide is serious but was ranked 10th in 2010.
C. Suicide is extremely rare and does not rank among the top causes of death
This underestimates the prevalence and public health significance of suicide.
D. Suicide only affects people over the age of 65 and is negligible in younger populations
This is false; suicide affects all age groups, including adolescents and young adults.
Which of the following best describes social anxiety disorder?
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A disorder marked by excessive worry across many areas of life without a specific trigger
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A persistent fear of situations where escape may be difficult during a panic attack
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Extreme fear and avoidance of social situations where one may be negatively judged by others
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Intense fear of a specific object or situation, such as heights or animals
Explanation
Correct Answer:
C. Extreme fear and avoidance of social situations where one may be negatively judged by others
Explanation:
Social anxiety disorder, formerly called social phobia, is characterized by ongoing fear or anxiety in social settings where evaluation by others is possible. Individuals may avoid public speaking, eating in public, or attending gatherings because they fear embarrassment, humiliation, or negative judgment. It is one of the most common anxiety disorders, affecting about 12% of Americans at some point in their lifetime. This condition can significantly interfere with education, work, and relationships.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. A disorder marked by excessive worry across many areas of life without a specific trigger
This describes generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), not social anxiety disorder.
B. A persistent fear of situations where escape may be difficult during a panic attack
This is agoraphobia, not social anxiety disorder.
D. Intense fear of a specific object or situation, such as heights or animals
This describes a specific phobia, not social anxiety disorder, which focuses on social evaluation.
Which of the following best describes posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
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A disorder characterized by excessive worry about everyday matters without a specific trigger
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A condition that develops after exposure to traumatic events, leading to persistent distressing symptoms
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A phobia involving intense fear of specific objects or situations, such as animals or flying
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A disorder involving recurrent panic attacks unrelated to trauma
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. A condition that develops after exposure to traumatic events, leading to persistent distressing symptoms
Explanation:
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) arises following exposure to traumatic events such as combat, natural disasters, or sexual assault. It was historically called “shell shock” or “combat neurosis” because it was first recognized in soldiers. Later, it became clear that anyone exposed to severe trauma could develop the disorder. PTSD symptoms include intrusive memories, flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, and avoidance of trauma-related reminders. These symptoms cause significant distress and impairment in daily life.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. A disorder characterized by excessive worry about everyday matters without a specific trigger
This describes generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), not PTSD.
C. A phobia involving intense fear of specific objects or situations, such as animals or flying
This refers to specific phobias, not PTSD, which is tied to trauma.
D. A disorder involving recurrent panic attacks unrelated to trauma
This describes panic disorder, not PTSD, which specifically develops after traumatic experiences.
Which of the following best describes the prevalence of major depressive disorder (MDD)?
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MDD affects less than 1% of the population and occurs equally among men and women
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MDD affects about 6.6% of the U.S. population annually and 16.9% over a lifetime, with higher rates in women than men
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MDD is extremely rare, occurring mostly in older adults with physical illnesses
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MDD is equally common in men and women, with no evidence of gender differences
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. MDD affects about 6.6% of the U.S. population annually and 16.9% over a lifetime, with higher rates in women than men
Explanation:
Major depressive disorder is widespread and often referred to as the “common cold” of psychiatric disorders due to its high prevalence. Each year, about 6.6% of U.S. adults experience MDD, and around 16.9% will develop it at some point in their lives. Women are more likely to experience depression than men, with approximately 20% of women and 13% of men affected. These differences are not fully explained by reporting tendencies but may reflect biological and environmental influences.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. MDD affects less than 1% of the population and occurs equally among men and women
This underestimates prevalence and ignores gender differences.
C. MDD is extremely rare, occurring mostly in older adults with physical illnesses
This is false because MDD is common across age groups, not just among older adults.
D. MDD is equally common in men and women, with no evidence of gender differences
This is incorrect since women show significantly higher rates than men.
Antisocial personality disorder is associated with ________.
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Emotional deficits
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Memory deficits
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Parental overprotection
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Increased empathy
Explanation
Correct Answer:
A. Emotional deficits
Explanation:
Antisocial personality disorder (ASPD) is marked by a lack of regard for others’ rights and feelings. Individuals with ASPD show emotional deficits, including shallow emotions, lack of remorse, and an inability to empathize with others. These deficits contribute to manipulative, deceitful, and impulsive behaviors that harm others and violate social norms. Emotional impairments are central to the disorder, affecting interpersonal functioning and moral reasoning.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
B. Memory deficits
Memory impairments are not a defining feature of ASPD.
C. Parental overprotection
While upbringing may influence personality development, overprotection is not a core feature of ASPD.
D. Increased empathy
ASPD is characterized by reduced empathy, not increased empathy, which contributes to harmful behaviors toward others.
Which of the following best describes comorbidity as discussed in the DSM-5?
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The process of classifying disorders by their biological causes only
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The co-occurrence of two or more psychological disorders in the same individual
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The misdiagnosis of one disorder as another due to overlapping symptoms
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The likelihood that a disorder will reappear after successful treatment
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. The co-occurrence of two or more psychological disorders in the same individual
Explanation:
Comorbidity refers to when a person experiences two or more psychological disorders at the same time. The DSM-5 highlights this common occurrence, such as the fact that 41% of individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) also meet criteria for major depressive disorder. Similarly, substance use disorders are often comorbid, with about 60% of people who suffer from them also experiencing another mental illness. Understanding comorbidity helps clinicians provide more accurate diagnosis and comprehensive treatment.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. The process of classifying disorders by their biological causes only
This describes a biological model of mental illness, not comorbidity, which involves the overlap of disorders.
C. The misdiagnosis of one disorder as another due to overlapping symptoms
This refers to diagnostic error, not comorbidity. Comorbidity is when both disorders genuinely exist together.
D. The likelihood that a disorder will reappear after successful treatment
This describes relapse, not comorbidity. Relapse refers to recurrence, while comorbidity refers to coexistence of conditions.
Which of the following best describes the DSM-III’s treatment of homosexuality?
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It classified homosexuality as a primary psychological disorder
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It removed homosexuality as a disorder but introduced ego-dystonic homosexuality to address distress over same-sex attraction
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It stated that homosexuality was a biological illness requiring treatment
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It avoided any mention of homosexuality in order to remain neutral
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. It removed homosexuality as a disorder but introduced ego-dystonic homosexuality to address distress over same-sex attraction
Explanation:
The DSM-III, published in 1980, did not classify homosexuality itself as a psychological disorder. However, it introduced the diagnosis of ego-dystonic homosexuality, which described individuals who experienced same-sex arousal but found it distressing because it conflicted with their desired heterosexual identity or relationships. This was seen as a compromise that attempted to acknowledge distress without labeling homosexuality itself as disordered, though the diagnosis remained controversial.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. It classified homosexuality as a primary psychological disorder
This was true in earlier editions of the DSM, but not in DSM-III, which had removed it as a diagnosis.
C. It stated that homosexuality was a biological illness requiring treatment
The DSM-III did not describe homosexuality as a biological illness or recommend treatment on that basis.
D. It avoided any mention of homosexuality in order to remain neutral
This is incorrect because DSM-III specifically included ego-dystonic homosexuality, rather than omitting the subject altogether.
Which of the following best describes attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
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A disorder characterized solely by persistent sadness and loss of interest in activities
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A pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that interferes with daily functioning
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Occasional difficulty concentrating during stressful events without functional impairment
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Recurrent panic attacks followed by worry about future attacks
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. A pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that interferes with daily functioning
Explanation:
ADHD is a neurodevelopmental disorder marked by persistent patterns of inattention (e.g., difficulty sustaining attention, forgetfulness, disorganization), hyperactivity (e.g., fidgeting, inability to stay seated, excessive movement), and impulsivity (e.g., interrupting, blurting out answers, poor impulse control). These behaviors are present across multiple settings—home, school, and social environments—and significantly impair daily functioning, learning, and social relationships. ADHD was first observed in the 1920s and formally recognized in the DSM-III (1980) as attention deficit disorder, now called ADHD.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. A disorder characterized solely by persistent sadness and loss of interest in activities
This describes major depressive disorder, not ADHD.
C. Occasional difficulty concentrating during stressful events without functional impairment
This is typical behavior under stress and does not meet criteria for ADHD, which requires chronic impairment.
D. Recurrent panic attacks followed by worry about future attacks
This characterizes panic disorder, not ADHD.
is the brain region believed to play a critical role in OCD.
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Amygdala
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Orbitofrontal cortex
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Hippocampus
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Cerebellum
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Orbitofrontal cortex
Explanation:
The orbitofrontal cortex is a brain region implicated in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). This area, located in the frontal lobes, is involved in decision-making, emotional regulation, and response to reward or punishment. In individuals with OCD, the orbitofrontal cortex shows heightened activity, which is thought to contribute to intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and the compulsive behaviors aimed at reducing distress. Dysregulation in this region, along with neurotransmitter imbalances, helps explain the persistence and intensity of OCD symptoms.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Amygdala
The amygdala is involved in processing fear and emotions, but it is not the primary brain region associated with OCD.
C. Hippocampus
The hippocampus plays a key role in memory formation, not in the repetitive thought-behavior cycles characteristic of OCD.
D. Cerebellum
The cerebellum is responsible for motor coordination and balance, not the intrusive thoughts and compulsions seen in OCD.
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