PSYCH 111: Introduction to Psychology: Week 3: Chapter 15 Quizzes: Psychological Disorders

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Free PSYCH 111: Introduction to Psychology: Week 3: Chapter 15 Quizzes: Psychological Disorders Questions

1.

Which of the following best reflects cognitive theories of depression?

  • Depression is caused only by genetic inheritance and brain chemistry

  • Depression is triggered by negative thoughts, self-evaluations, and expectations

  • Depression is a temporary sadness caused by stressful but short-lived events

  • Depression develops solely from abnormal activity in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Depression is triggered by negative thoughts, self-evaluations, and expectations

Explanation:

Cognitive theories emphasize the role of maladaptive thinking patterns in depression. According to this view, individuals develop depression because they hold persistent negative beliefs about themselves, the world, and the future (known as Beck’s cognitive triad). These distorted thoughts shape how people interpret events, leading to hopelessness and despair. Unlike biological theories, which focus on brain function, the cognitive approach highlights the role of interpretation and thought processes in maintaining depression.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Depression is caused only by genetic inheritance and brain chemistry

This describes the biological perspective, not the cognitive theory.

C. Depression is a temporary sadness caused by stressful but short-lived events


This oversimplifies depression, which is chronic and deeply tied to thought patterns, not just brief sadness.

D. Depression develops solely from abnormal activity in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex


This also reflects a biological model, not the cognitive theory that emphasizes negative thinking and expectations.


2.

Which of the following best describes the DSM-III’s treatment of homosexuality?

  • It classified homosexuality as a primary psychological disorder

  • It removed homosexuality as a disorder but introduced ego-dystonic homosexuality to address distress over same-sex attraction

  • It stated that homosexuality was a biological illness requiring treatment

  • It avoided any mention of homosexuality in order to remain neutral

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. It removed homosexuality as a disorder but introduced ego-dystonic homosexuality to address distress over same-sex attraction

Explanation:

The DSM-III, published in 1980, did not classify homosexuality itself as a psychological disorder. However, it introduced the diagnosis of ego-dystonic homosexuality, which described individuals who experienced same-sex arousal but found it distressing because it conflicted with their desired heterosexual identity or relationships. This was seen as a compromise that attempted to acknowledge distress without labeling homosexuality itself as disordered, though the diagnosis remained controversial.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. It classified homosexuality as a primary psychological disorder

This was true in earlier editions of the DSM, but not in DSM-III, which had removed it as a diagnosis.

C. It stated that homosexuality was a biological illness requiring treatment


The DSM-III did not describe homosexuality as a biological illness or recommend treatment on that basis.

D. It avoided any mention of homosexuality in order to remain neutral


This is incorrect because DSM-III specifically included ego-dystonic homosexuality, rather than omitting the subject altogether.


3.

Which of the following best describes a manic episode according to the DSM-5?

  • A brief period of sadness lasting a few hours following a stressful event

  • A distinct period of elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased energy lasting at least one week

  • A persistent state of mild depression lasting for at least two years

  • A sudden, intense episode of fear peaking within 10 minutes

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. A distinct period of elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased energy lasting at least one week

Explanation:

The DSM-5 defines a manic episode as a sustained period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood combined with persistently increased activity or energy. The episode must last for at least one week and be present most of the day, nearly every day. Mania often leads to reckless behavior, inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, and excessive involvement in risky activities. It is a defining feature of bipolar disorder and distinguishes it from unipolar depression.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. A brief period of sadness lasting a few hours following a stressful event

This describes a normal mood reaction, not mania.

C. A persistent state of mild depression lasting for at least two years


This describes persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), not a manic episode.

D. A sudden, intense episode of fear peaking within 10 minutes


This describes a panic attack, not mania.


4.

................................are repetitive and ritualistic acts that are typically carried out primarily as a means to minimize the distress that obsessions trigger or to reduce the likelihood of a feared event.

  • Obsessions

  • Compulsions

  • Fixations

  • Delusions

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Compulsions

Explanation:

Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed to relieve the anxiety or distress caused by intrusive thoughts (obsessions). For example, someone may repeatedly wash their hands to reduce contamination fears or check locks to prevent imagined harm. While these actions may temporarily ease anxiety, they do not provide long-term relief and can interfere with daily life. Compulsions are a defining feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Obsessions

Obsessions are intrusive and unwanted thoughts, urges, or images—not the behaviors performed to reduce distress.

C. Fixations


Fixations refer to an unresolved stage of psychosexual development in Freud’s theory, not repetitive anxiety-reducing behaviors.

D. Delusions


Delusions are false beliefs held despite contrary evidence, often associated with psychotic disorders, not ritualistic acts.


5.

Which of the following best explains the brain regions linked to depression?

  • Depression is caused only by the cerebellum, which regulates balance and coordination

  • Depression is associated with abnormal activity in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex, affecting emotion processing and regulation

  • Depression results solely from the hippocampus, which controls memory but not emotion

  • Depression is unrelated to brain activity and occurs only because of environmental stress

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Depression is associated with abnormal activity in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex, affecting emotion processing and regulation

Explanation:

Depression has been linked to abnormal functioning in several brain regions. The amygdala, responsible for assessing emotional significance and generating emotional responses, shows heightened activity in depression. The prefrontal cortex (PFC), which regulates and controls emotions, often shows reduced activity, impairing emotional regulation. Together, this imbalance contributes to persistent negative mood and difficulties managing emotional responses, highlighting the biological basis of depression.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Depression is caused only by the cerebellum, which regulates balance and coordination

The cerebellum controls motor coordination, not the emotional regulation implicated in depression.

C. Depression results solely from the hippocampus, which controls memory but not emotion


While the hippocampus plays a role in memory and may be affected, it is not the primary region linked to emotional regulation in depression.

D. Depression is unrelated to brain activity and occurs only because of environmental stress


This ignores strong evidence showing abnormal brain activity contributes significantly to depression.


6.

Which of the following best describes the definition of a psychological disorder?

  • Any atypical behavior or trait that deviates from what is considered normal in society

  • A set of behaviors, thoughts, or feelings that are atypical, distressful, dysfunctional, and possibly dangerous

  • Any characteristic that is rare in the population, such as red hair

  • Any temporary sadness or frustration experienced after rejection or disappointment

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. A set of behaviors, thoughts, or feelings that are atypical, distressful, dysfunctional, and possibly dangerous

Explanation:

Psychological disorders are identified not just by atypicality, but by whether the behaviors, thoughts, or feelings cause distress, dysfunction, or danger. For example, normal sadness after rejection differs from severe depression with hopelessness, loss of interest, and suicidal thoughts. While being rare may make something atypical, rarity alone is not enough to qualify as a disorder. The key criteria are the impact on daily functioning and well-being.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Any atypical behavior or trait that deviates from what is considered normal in society

Atypicality alone does not define a disorder. Many atypical traits (like creativity or athletic talent) are not pathological.

C. Any characteristic that is rare in the population, such as red hair


Rarity alone is not a disorder. Red hair is statistically uncommon but not distressful, dysfunctional, or dangerous.

D. Any temporary sadness or frustration experienced after rejection or disappointment


This reflects normal emotional experience, not a disorder. Disorders involve patterns that are severe, persistent, and disruptive to daily life.


7.

Which of the following best explains the neurobiological theory of panic disorder?

  • Panic disorder is caused only by learned associations and has no biological basis

  • The locus coeruleus, a brainstem region that releases norepinephrine, may trigger panic symptoms

  • Panic disorder results exclusively from serotonin imbalances in the frontal cortex

  • Panic disorder is solely a psychological reaction to stressful life events without brain involvement

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. The locus coeruleus, a brainstem region that releases norepinephrine, may trigger panic symptoms

Explanation:

Neurobiological theories suggest that panic disorder is linked to abnormal functioning of the locus coeruleus, a brainstem region responsible for producing norepinephrine. Norepinephrine activates the body’s fight-or-flight response, leading to symptoms such as increased heart rate, trembling, and sweating during a panic attack. Overactivity in this region may contribute to the sudden and intense onset of panic symptoms. This supports the idea that panic disorder involves both biological and psychological components.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Panic disorder is caused only by learned associations and has no biological basis

This ignores the neurobiological evidence pointing to the role of brain structures and neurotransmitters.

C. Panic disorder results exclusively from serotonin imbalances in the frontal cortex


While serotonin may play a role in anxiety disorders, panic disorder specifically implicates norepinephrine and the locus coeruleus.

D. Panic disorder is solely a psychological reaction to stressful life events without brain involvement


This is incomplete. Stress can be a trigger, but neurobiology, especially the locus coeruleus, plays a central role in panic disorder.


8.

Which of the following best describes suicide according to the CDC and its relation to mood disorders?

  • Suicide is a random act that occurs only in people with no prior mental health issues

  • Suicide is death caused by self-directed injurious behavior with any intent to die, often linked to extreme emotional pain and lack of protective factors

  • Suicide is primarily a result of genetic factors and occurs independently of environmental or psychological stress

  • Suicide is always a rational decision made by individuals seeking to escape minor life challenges

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Suicide is death caused by self-directed injurious behavior with any intent to die, often linked to extreme emotional pain and lack of protective factors

Explanation:

Suicide, as defined by the CDC, involves self-directed behavior intended to cause death. In people with mood disorders, intense emotional pain, feelings of hopelessness, and perceived worthlessness can lead to suicidal thoughts. The risk increases when protective factors, such as social support, religion, coping skills, and problem-solving abilities, are lacking. Additionally, the person must have access to means for the suicidal act. Suicide represents the outcome of multiple vulnerabilities converging, not a simple or impulsive decision.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Suicide is a random act that occurs only in people with no prior mental health issues

This is false. Suicide is strongly associated with mental health conditions, particularly mood disorders.

C. Suicide is primarily a result of genetic factors and occurs independently of environmental or psychological stress


While genetics may play a role, environmental stressors and psychological pain are critical contributors.

D. Suicide is always a rational decision made by individuals seeking to escape minor life challenges


This is inaccurate. Suicide often arises from severe emotional distress and impaired coping, not from rational evaluation of minor problems.


9.

Which of these best sums up panic disorder?

  • Persistent fear and avoidance of specific objects or situations such as heights or flying

  • Extreme fear of social interactions where negative evaluation is possible

  • Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by worry about future attacks and their consequences

  • Generalized, excessive worry across multiple areas of daily life without a clear trigger

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by worry about future attacks and their consequences

Explanation:

Panic disorder is defined by repeated, unexpected panic attacks that are not tied to a specific situation. These attacks involve sudden intense fear with physical symptoms such as sweating, heart palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. To qualify as panic disorder, there must also be persistent concern about future attacks or maladaptive changes in behavior (e.g., avoiding certain places) for at least one month. The fear of future attacks often becomes as disabling as the attacks themselves.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. Persistent fear and avoidance of specific objects or situations such as heights or flying

This describes specific phobia, not panic disorder.

B. Extreme fear of social interactions where negative evaluation is possible


This describes social anxiety disorder, not panic disorder.

D. Generalized, excessive worry across multiple areas of daily life without a clear trigger


This describes generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), not panic disorder.


10.

Which of the following best defines psychopathology?

  • The study of normal variations in human behavior and cognition

  • The study of psychological disorders, including their symptoms, causes, and treatment

  • The exclusive focus on biological explanations for mental illness

  • The practice of labeling all unusual behaviors as psychological disorders

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. The study of psychological disorders, including their symptoms, causes, and treatment

Explanation:

Psychopathology is the scientific study of psychological disorders. It involves examining their symptoms, identifying possible causes (etiology), and exploring effective treatments. The term can also describe the manifestation of a disorder itself. Because not all unusual thoughts or behaviors are pathological, mental health professionals must carefully distinguish between normal variations and truly abnormal patterns that reflect psychological disturbance. Consensus in diagnosis is essential for accurate understanding and treatment.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:

A. The study of normal variations in human behavior and cognition

This refers to general psychology, not psychopathology, which specifically focuses on disorders and dysfunction.

C. The exclusive focus on biological explanations for mental illness


This represents a biological model of mental illness but does not capture the broader definition of psychopathology, which also considers psychological and developmental processes.

D. The practice of labeling all unusual behaviors as psychological disorders


This is inaccurate because psychopathology requires clinically significant disturbances, not simply any unusual or socially different behaviors.


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