NR413 Pharmacology Exam 5 - Regis University

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Ace Your Test with NR413 Pharmacology Exam 5 - Regis University Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free NR413 Pharmacology Exam 5 - Regis University Questions

1.

The prescriber has ordered Ceftriaxone for a hospitalized client. Which of the following would cause the nurse to hold the medication and call the provider to clarify the order?

  • The patient requests to start a probiotic while taking the antibiotic

  • The client has a recent history of an anaphylactic reaction to Penicillin

  • The client demonstrates an elevated white blood cell count and a fever

  • The culture test has been drawn, but the results are not back yet from the lab

Explanation

Explanation
Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic, and there is a known risk of cross-sensitivity between penicillins and cephalosporins due to their similar chemical structures. A client with a history of an anaphylactic (severe, life-threatening) reaction to penicillin is at increased risk for a similar severe reaction to ceftriaxone, so the nurse should hold the medication and clarify the order with the provider before administration.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. The patient requests to start a probiotic while taking the antibiotic. This is not a safety concern requiring the medication to be held; probiotics can generally be taken alongside antibiotics and do not warrant clarification of the order.
C. The client demonstrates an elevated white blood cell count and a fever. These findings are consistent with an active infection, which supports the rationale for antibiotic therapy rather than being a reason to hold the medication.
D. The culture test has been drawn, but the results are not back yet from the lab. It is standard practice to begin empiric antibiotic therapy after cultures are obtained but before results return; this is not a reason to hold the medication.
2.

A female client is prescribed a broad spectrum antibiotic. The client reports that she frequently develops a yeast infection when taking antibiotics. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include for the client?

  • Educate the client that yeast infections are a form of severe allergic reaction, she should take an antihistamine

  • It is best to take multiple antibiotics at the same time to prevent fungal overgrowth/infections

  • Try to take in daily yogurt, buttermilk, or a probiotic agent to help prevent fungal overgrowth/infection

  • There have been improvements in antibiotic treatment so fungal overgrowth/infections no longer occur

Explanation

Explanation
Broad-spectrum antibiotics disrupt the normal, protective bacterial flora throughout the body, including in the vaginal area, which can allow for an overgrowth of Candida (yeast). Consuming foods containing live cultures (such as yogurt or buttermilk) or taking a probiotic supplement can help restore normal flora balance and reduce the risk of developing a secondary yeast infection during antibiotic therapy.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Educate the client that yeast infections are a form of severe allergic reaction, she should take an antihistamine. This is factually incorrect; a yeast infection is a fungal overgrowth, not an allergic reaction, and antihistamines would not be an appropriate treatment.
B. It is best to take multiple antibiotics at the same time to prevent fungal overgrowth/infections. Taking multiple antibiotics simultaneously would further disrupt normal flora and increase, not decrease, the risk of fungal overgrowth.
D. There have been improvements in antibiotic treatment so fungal overgrowth/infections no longer occur. This is factually inaccurate; fungal overgrowth remains a common and well-documented complication of antibiotic therapy.
3. Which of the following statements about chemotherapy treatment is most accurate?
  • When patients feel tired and nauseated, it is best to skip the next round of chemo in order to recover

  • When cancer is found in late stages and it is not able to be cured, chemotherapy treatment is never indicated

  • All types of cancer respond best to one chemotherapeutic agent and this helps minimize toxicity to the patient

  • There are many side effects of chemotherapy drugs that often require medication to manage symptoms

Explanation

Explanation
Chemotherapy is associated with numerous side effects, including nausea, vomiting, myelosuppression, and mucositis, many of which require supportive medications (such as antiemetics or growth factors) to manage symptoms and improve the client's tolerance of treatment.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. When patients feel tired and nauseated, it is best to skip the next round of chemo in order to recover. Skipping doses without provider guidance is not appropriate; chemotherapy schedules are carefully planned, and any changes should be determined by the provider, with symptom management addressed through supportive medications rather than skipping treatment.
B. When cancer is found in late stages and it is not able to be cured, chemotherapy treatment is never indicated. Chemotherapy may still be used in late-stage or incurable cancers for palliative purposes, to reduce tumor size, relieve symptoms, or extend quality of life, even when a cure is not possible.
C. All types of cancer respond best to one chemotherapeutic agent and this helps minimize toxicity to the patient. This is inaccurate; different cancers respond to different chemotherapeutic agents or combinations, and treatment is individualized based on cancer type and characteristics, not a single universal agent.
4. A client is beginning therapy for active tuberculosis (TB). The client asks, "Why do I have to take so many drugs?" What is the best response by the nurse?
  • "Multiple agents are necessary because of the risk of the TB bacteria developing drug resistance"

  • "Due to non-compliance, we prescribe many drugs so that even if you are 50% compliant we can still cure you"

  • "You are very sick, we only use multiple drugs when the TB case is severe"

  • "If we use more agents, then we can treat you for a shorter period of time"

Explanation

Explanation
Tuberculosis treatment requires a multidrug regimen because using a single agent increases the risk of the bacteria developing resistance to that medication. Combining multiple antitubercular drugs with different mechanisms of action helps ensure more complete eradication of the bacteria and significantly reduces the likelihood of resistant strains developing.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. "Due to non-compliance, we prescribe many drugs so that even if you are 50% compliant we can still cure you" This is inaccurate and could encourage poor medication adherence; the client must take the full regimen as prescribed for effective treatment.
C. "You are very sick, we only use multiple drugs when the TB case is severe" Multidrug therapy is the standard of care for all active TB cases, not reserved solely for severe presentations.
D. "If we use more agents, then we can treat you for a shorter period of time" This is misleading; TB treatment still requires a prolonged course (typically 6 months or more) regardless of using multiple agents, and the primary purpose is to prevent resistance, not shorten treatment duration.
5. A nurse is providing care for a hospitalized client for a healthcare associated infection. The nurse notes the client's culture and sensitivity results have just been finalized. The information indicates that the bacteria is resistant to the ordered antibiotic. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?
  • Stop the current antibiotic infusion, and provide hand-off report of these results to the oncoming nurse

  • Call the provider to see if a change in antibiotics should be made before the next administration

  • Send a message to the provider about the results, but administer the current antibiotic

  • Discontinue the antibiotic, and call the pharmacy to obtain a new order for an appropriate antibiotic

Explanation

Explanation
When culture and sensitivity results reveal that the bacteria is resistant to the currently ordered antibiotic, the nurse's priority action is to promptly notify the provider so that an appropriate change in therapy can be ordered before the next dose is due. This ensures the client receives an effective treatment as soon as possible while working within the nurse's scope of practice, since only the provider can change the medication order.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Stop the current antibiotic infusion, and provide hand-off report of these results to the oncoming nurse. Passing this critical information along without taking direct action or notifying the provider delays necessary treatment changes and does not represent a proactive priority action.
C. Send a message to the provider about the results, but administer the current antibiotic. Continuing to administer an antibiotic known to be ineffective against the resistant organism does not benefit the client and delays appropriate treatment.
D. Discontinue the antibiotic, and call the pharmacy to obtain a new order for an appropriate antibiotic. This is outside the nurse's scope of practice; only the provider can order a change in antibiotic therapy, not the pharmacy or the nurse independently.
6. After interviewing a client who has been taking isotretinoin for the past two months, which of the following statements by the client will the nurse prioritize following up on first?
  • "Last week after soccer practice I had a headache"

  • "In the last month, I have had two nosebleeds that lasted a minute or two"

  • "Some of my skin is feeling itchy and peels in some places"

  • "I've been feeling really sad lately, and I am not sure why"

Explanation

Explanation
Isotretinoin carries a serious black box warning for depression, suicidal ideation, and mood changes. New-onset sadness or mood changes in a client taking this medication must be prioritized and followed up on immediately, as this could indicate a serious psychiatric adverse effect requiring prompt evaluation and potential discontinuation of the medication.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. "Last week after soccer practice I had a headache." A single headache after physical activity is a common, non-specific symptom and is not an urgent priority compared to a potential mood-related adverse effect.
B. "In the last month, I have had two nosebleeds that lasted a minute or two." Mild, brief nosebleeds are a known common side effect of isotretinoin due to mucous membrane dryness and are not immediately life-threatening.
C. "Some of my skin is feeling itchy and peels in some places." Dry, peeling skin is an expected and common side effect of isotretinoin therapy and does not require urgent prioritization over a potential mental health concern.
7.

Which of the following agents is the drug of choice to treat Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) and Clostridium Difficile (C.diff)?

  • Vancomycin

  • Fluconazole

  • Amoxicillin

  • Acyclovir

Explanation

Explanation
Vancomycin is effective against both MRSA (given intravenously) and Clostridium difficile (given orally, as it stays within the GI tract to act locally). It remains a first-line, drug-of-choice agent for treating both of these serious infections due to its efficacy against these organisms.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Fluconazole. This is an antifungal medication and has no activity against bacterial infections such as MRSA or C. diff.
C. Amoxicillin. MRSA is resistant to penicillin-class antibiotics like amoxicillin by definition, and amoxicillin is not effective against C. diff.
D. Acyclovir. This is an antiviral medication and has no activity against bacterial infections such as MRSA or C. diff.
8. A nursing student is preparing a presentation about anticancer agents. Which of the following statements does the nursing student identify is most accurate for "cell-cycle specific" chemotherapy agents?
  • "Cell-cycle specific agents are effective during a specific part of the cell cycle, like the M phase for example"

  • "Cell-cycle specific agents are effective against all phases of the cell cycle"

  • "Cell-cycle specific agents will promote the growth of new blood cells"

  • "Cell-cycle specific agents are all administered by mouth, while other chemotherapy agents are given IV"

Explanation

Explanation
Cell-cycle specific chemotherapy agents exert their cytotoxic effects only during a particular phase of the cell cycle (such as the S phase for DNA synthesis or the M phase for mitosis), making them most effective against rapidly dividing cells that are actively progressing through the targeted phase.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. "Cell-cycle specific agents are effective against all phases of the cell cycle." This describes cell-cycle non-specific agents, which act on cells regardless of their phase in the cycle — the opposite of cell-cycle specific agents.
C. "Cell-cycle specific agents will promote the growth of new blood cells." Chemotherapy agents, including cell-cycle specific ones, typically suppress rapidly dividing cells (including bone marrow cells), often leading to myelosuppression rather than promoting new blood cell growth.
D. "Cell-cycle specific agents are all administered by mouth, while other chemotherapy agents are given IV." The route of administration (oral vs. IV) is not determined by whether an agent is cell-cycle specific or non-specific; this is an inaccurate generalization.
9. An adolescent client is prescribed an antibiotic to treat severe acne. The client asks the nurse why antibiotics help treat acne. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
  • "This medication helps because it kills the bacteria called P. Acnes that contributes to acne lesions"

  • "This medication will stop the oily secretions and clogging of all pores from the body's sebaceous glands"

  • "This medication works by lower androgen levels, which improves acne treatment in people of your age"

  • "This medication increases sebum secretion. Sebum helps protect against the formation of new acne lesions"

Explanation

Explanation
Antibiotics used to treat acne (such as doxycycline or minocycline) work by targeting and reducing Cutibacterium acnes (formerly Propionibacterium acnes), a bacteria that colonizes clogged pores and contributes to inflammation and acne lesion formation. By decreasing this bacterial population, antibiotics help reduce inflammation and the severity of acne lesions.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. "This medication will stop the oily secretions and clogging of all pores from the body's sebaceous glands." Antibiotics do not stop sebum production or gland activity; this mechanism is more closely associated with retinoids, not antibiotics.
C. "This medication works by lower androgen levels, which improves acne treatment in people of your age." Antibiotics do not affect androgen levels; hormonal therapies (such as certain oral contraceptives or spironolactone) are used to target androgen-related acne, not antibiotics.
D. "This medication increases sebum secretion. Sebum helps protect against the formation of new acne lesions." This is factually incorrect; excess sebum contributes to acne formation rather than protecting against it, and antibiotics do not increase sebum production.
10. A female client was prescribed doxycycline. Other medications on the client's medication history include: ibuprofen, multivitamin, and birth control pills. What information should the nurse prioritize when teaching about this medication?
  • This medication can be taken with your other medications, just wash it down with milk to prevent GI upset

  • This medication can cause teratogenic effects to a fetus, we recommend an additional contraceptive method

  • This medication is a broad spectrum antibiotic, which means we will need to combine it with another antibiotic

  • This medication is a drug of choice for clients of all ages because it is so well-tolerated

Explanation

Explanation
Doxycycline (a tetracycline-class antibiotic) can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives and carries a risk of teratogenic effects to a developing fetus, including permanent tooth discoloration and impaired bone growth. Since the client is taking birth control pills, the nurse should prioritize teaching her to use an additional, non-hormonal contraceptive method to prevent an unintended pregnancy while on this medication.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. This medication can be taken with your other medications, just wash it down with milk to prevent GI upset. Doxycycline should not be taken with dairy products (such as milk) or other calcium/iron-containing products, as these can bind to the medication and significantly reduce its absorption and effectiveness.
C. This medication is a broad spectrum antibiotic, which means we will need to combine it with another antibiotic. Doxycycline does not need to be combined with another antibiotic simply because it is broad spectrum; it is often prescribed alone depending on the infection being treated.
D. This medication is a drug of choice for clients of all ages because it is so well-tolerated. Doxycycline is contraindicated in children under 8 years old and during pregnancy due to the risk of permanent tooth discoloration and effects on bone growth, so it is not appropriate for clients of all ages.

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