ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026

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Free ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Questions

1. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who has status asthmaticus. The nurse should expect which of the following findings?
  • Epigastric pain

  • Bradycardia

  • Distended neck veins

  • Increase in peak expiratory rate flow

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Distended neck veins
Status asthmaticus is a severe, prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to standard bronchodilator therapy. During status asthmaticus, severe air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs increase intrathoracic pressure, which impairs venous return to the heart. This elevated intrathoracic pressure causes backup of venous blood, resulting in distended neck veins. This is a serious finding indicating significant respiratory compromise and impending respiratory failure.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Epigastric pain epigastric pain is not a characteristic finding of status asthmaticus. It is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal conditions such as GERD, peptic ulcer disease, or pancreatitis.
B. Bradycardia status asthmaticus causes tachycardia, not bradycardia, due to hypoxia, anxiety, increased work of breathing, and the sympathetic stress response. Bradycardia in this context would indicate impending respiratory and cardiac arrest.
D. Increase in peak expiratory rate flow peak expiratory flow rate is decreased, not increased, in status asthmaticus due to severe bronchoconstriction and airway obstruction. A markedly reduced peak flow is one of the defining features of this condition.
2.

A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

  • A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities
  • A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring
  • A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea
  • A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 7.2% (less than 7%)

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (C) A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea A new onset of tachypnea in a client with a hip fracture is a critical finding that may indicate a pulmonary embolism (PE), a life-threatening complication commonly associated with hip fractures and immobility. Tachypnea represents an acute change in respiratory status that requires immediate assessment and intervention, making this client the highest priority using the ABCDE framework.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities — Lower extremity weakness is an expected side effect of epidural analgesia due to the effects of local anesthetic on motor nerves. While it requires monitoring, it is an anticipated finding and not an acute emergency.

B. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring — Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation in heart rate associated with the respiratory cycle and is not a pathological finding. A client receiving cardiac monitoring for this rhythm does not require priority assessment over an acutely deteriorating client.

D. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 7.2% — An HbA1c of 7.2% is near the target goal of less than 7% for diabetic management. This represents adequate glycemic control and is not an acute concern requiring immediate assessment.

3.

A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and is postoperative following a bilateral mastectomy. Which of the following statements indicates the client has an altered body image?

  • "I want to have reconstructive surgery as soon as I can."​
  • "I am ready to join a breast cancer support group."​
  • "I prefer to leave the lights off when I am changing my clothes."​
  • "I understand that my scars will eventually fade."

Explanation

Explanation
Avoiding seeing one’s own body or hiding one’s appearance is a classic sign of altered body image. The client’s desire to keep the lights off indicates discomfort, shame, or difficulty accepting the physical changes after surgery. This reflects emotional distress and disturbed self‐perception, which commonly arise after mastectomy.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
  • Weight gain

  • Tachycardia

  • Increased body temperature

  • Jugular vein distention

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Tachycardia
Tachycardia is a classic compensatory response to hypovolemia. When circulating blood volume decreases, the heart rate increases to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion. This sympathetic nervous system response is one of the earliest and most reliable signs of hypovolemia, making it an expected assessment finding in this clinical situation.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Weight gain weight gain is associated with fluid volume excess, not hypovolemia. Hypovolemia results in weight loss due to the decrease in total body fluid volume.
C. Increased body temperature while fever can contribute to hypovolemia through increased insensible fluid losses, an elevated body temperature is not a direct expected finding of hypovolemia itself. Hypovolemia more characteristically presents with cool, clammy skin due to peripheral vasoconstriction.
D. Jugular vein distention jugular vein distention is a sign of fluid volume excess and increased central venous pressure, as seen in conditions such as heart failure or fluid overload. In hypovolemia, the jugular veins are flat due to decreased venous return and reduced circulating volume.
5. A nurse is assisting a client who lives in a rural community with obtaining health services. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates coordination of care?
  • Informing the client about providers who accept their health insurance.

  • Providing the client with information about transportation services.

  • Encouraging the client to become a self-advocate.

  • Arranging an appointment for the client with a mobile health clinic.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Arranging an appointment for the client with a mobile health clinic.
Coordination of care involves actively organizing and facilitating access to appropriate healthcare services by directly connecting the client with the resources they need. Arranging an actual appointment for the client with a mobile health clinic is the only option that involves the nurse taking direct action to coordinate and secure a specific healthcare service for the client, rather than simply providing information or encouragement. This is a concrete example of care coordination that bridges the gap between the client's need and an appropriate health service.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Informing the client about providers who accept their health insurance. — Providing information is an educational intervention, not care coordination. The nurse is sharing information but is not actively facilitating or arranging access to services.
B. Providing the client with information about transportation services. — Providing transportation information is a supportive action that addresses a barrier to care, but it is an informational intervention rather than direct coordination of care.
C. Encouraging the client to become a self-advocate. — Encouraging self-advocacy is an empowerment and health education strategy. While valuable, it places the responsibility of action on the client rather than demonstrating the nurse's direct role in coordinating care.
6. A nurse is planning care for a client who wants to quit smoking. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
  • Determine the client's coping methods.

  • Provide education about the dangers of smoking.

  • Implement activities that promote the client's self-esteem.

  • Offer a list of smoking cessation support groups.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Determine the client's coping methods.
Before implementing any intervention, the nurse must first assess the client. Determining the client's coping methods is an assessment action and follows the nursing process (ADPIE), where Assessment comes before Planning and Implementation. Understanding how the client currently copes helps the nurse tailor an individualized and effective smoking cessation plan.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Provide education about the dangers of smoking — Education is an intervention and should come after a thorough assessment of the client's needs and readiness to learn.
C. Implement activities that promote the client's self-esteem — This is also an intervention that requires prior assessment to determine if self-esteem issues are even a contributing factor.
D. Offer a list of smoking cessation support groups — While helpful, this is an intervention and should not be done before assessing the client's current coping strategies and support needs.
7. A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
  • "This type of seizure has a gradual onset."

  • "The child usually has an aura prior to onset."

  • "This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds."

  • "This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming."

Explanation

Explanation

Correct Answer: (D) "This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming." Absence seizures are characterized by brief episodes of staring, blankness, and loss of awareness that typically last only 5 to 10 seconds. Because the child appears to momentarily zone out without falling or convulsing, these episodes are frequently mistaken for daydreaming or inattention, which can delay diagnosis and treatment.


Why the other options are incorrect:
  • A. "This type of seizure has a gradual onset." Absence seizures have an abrupt onset and termination with no warning. The child suddenly stops activity, stares blankly, and then resumes normal activity just as abruptly, often without awareness that a seizure occurred.
  • B. "The child usually has an aura prior to onset." Auras are associated with focal seizures, particularly temporal lobe seizures, not absence seizures. Absence seizures begin without any warning or preceding aura.
  • C. "This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds." Absence seizures are very brief, typically lasting only 5 to 10 seconds. Seizures lasting 30 to 60 seconds are more characteristic of other seizure types such as focal or tonic-clonic seizures.
8. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has schizophrenia and is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
  • Encourage the client to lie down in a quiet room.

  • Avoid eye contact with the client.

  • Refer to the hallucinations as if they are real.

  • Ask the client directly what they are hearing.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Ask the client directly what they are hearing.
Asking the client directly what they are hearing is a therapeutic nursing intervention that establishes trust, opens communication, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations including whether the voices are commanding the client to harm themselves or others. Understanding what the client is experiencing helps the nurse evaluate safety risks, the severity of the hallucination, and the appropriate level of intervention required.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Encourage the client to lie down in a quiet room. — Isolating a client who is experiencing active auditory hallucinations can worsen the experience. Sensory deprivation in a quiet, isolated environment may actually intensify hallucinations by reducing competing real-world stimuli. The client benefits more from gentle engagement and reality orientation.

B. Avoid eye contact with the client. — Avoiding eye contact is not a therapeutic approach. Therapeutic communication requires attentive, respectful engagement including appropriate eye contact to convey presence, interest, and safety. Avoiding eye contact can make the client feel dismissed or unsafe.

C. Refer to the hallucinations as if they are real. — The nurse should never reinforce or validate hallucinations as real experiences. Doing so worsens the client's detachment from reality. Instead, the nurse should acknowledge that the client's experience is real to them while gently orienting them to reality, without arguing or dismissing their distress.
9. A nurse is discussing antidepressants with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?
  • A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels
  • A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels
  • A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels
  • A client who has decreased serotonin levels

Explanation

Decreased serotonin levels are strongly associated with depressive disorders. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that regulates mood, sleep, appetite, and cognition. Low levels can contribute to symptoms such as sadness, irritability, poor concentration, and sleep disturbances. Antidepressant therapy, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), helps increase serotonin availability in the brain, improving mood and emotional stability.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who has an end-stage lung disease. The client requests not to be resuscitated if their condition worsens. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
  • Explain to the client they can change their mind at any time.
  • Obtain consent from the family for the change to the plan of care.
  • Discharge the client to hospice care.
  • Place a sign with "Do Not Resuscitate" outside the client’s room.

Explanation

A Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order is a client-directed decision that must be documented in the medical record. The nurse should ensure the client understands that a DNR is reversible and that they can change their decision at any time. This reinforces the client’s autonomy and right to make informed choices about their own care.

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