ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023

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Free ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Questions

1.

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is notified that a mass casualty event has occurred in the community. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

  • A. Act as a liaison between the facility and the media.​
  • B. Determine the medical needs of incoming clients through the emergency department.​
  • C. Recommend to the provider specific acute care clients for discharge.​
  • D. Call in additional medical-surgical unit nursing care staff.

Explanation

Explanation
During a mass casualty event, hospital units must rapidly increase capacity to accommodate incoming victims. One of the most important roles of the medical-surgical nurse is to identify stable clients who may be safely discharged or transferred to make room for critically injured clients arriving through the ED. This step helps decompress the facility, ensures efficient flow of patients, and supports disaster triage protocols. The nurse collaborates with the provider to determine appropriate candidates.
2.

A nurse is caring for a toddler in the outpatient setting.​
Exhibit 1
Nurses' Notes
1 week ago:
Guardians report 2-day history of fever, congestion, and cough. Toddler fussy, moderate amount of clear, thick nasal drainage noted. Frequent loose, non-productive cough. Lungs sound clear. Respirations easy and unlabored.​
Today:
Guardians report toddler continues with a fever and is now vomiting and difficult to rouse.​
Guardians report administering aspirin and acetaminophen alternately during the past week.​
Toddier lethargic and frequently vomiting small amounts of clear fluid. Respirations easy and unlabored. Nonproductive cough noted. Mucus membranes slightly dry. Guardians report no void today.

Exhibit 2​
Vital Signs
1 week ago:
Heart rate 114/min
Respiratory rate 30/min
Temperature 38.8° C (101.8* F)
Today:
Heart rate 120/min
Respiratory rate 22/min
Temperature 39° C (102.2° F)
Exhibit 3​
Plan of Care
1 week ago:
Treat with antipyretids. Encourage fluid intake. Return to office if manifestations worsen. Start prescription for oseltamivir for 5 days.​
Exhibit 4​
Results
1 week ago:
Influenza A positive (neEncourage fluid intake. Return to office if Influenza B negative (neStart prescription for oseltamivir for 5

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

  • A. Reye’s syndrome … aspirin administration​
  • B. Gastroenteritis … oseltamivir administration​
  • C. Bronchitis … acetaminophen administration

Explanation

Explanation
Reye’s syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with giving aspirin to children recovering from viral infections such as influenza A, which this toddler tested positive for. The toddler now presents with hallmark signs: vomiting, lethargy, difficulty arousing, and worsening neurological status. These symptoms strongly indicate progression to Reye’s syndrome, a medical emergency that develops when aspirin triggers acute encephalopathy and liver dysfunction.
3.

A nurse is assessing a 1-month-old infant at a pediatric clinic. Which of the following findings indicates developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

  • A. Femoral head remains in the acetabulum during the Barlow maneuver​
  • B. Equal leg length​
  • C. Limited hip abduction​
  • D. Symmetric gluteal and thigh skin folds

Explanation

Explanation
Limited hip abduction in an infant is a key sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). When the hip joint is not properly formed, movement becomes restricted, especially when abducting the thighs. This finding is particularly significant after the first few weeks of life, when instability signs such as positive Barlow or Ortolani maneuvers may no longer be present. Decreased abduction reflects structural abnormalities in the hip joint and warrants prompt orthopedic evaluation to prevent long-term mobility issues.
4. 118. A nurse working on a surgical unit is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia. The client has an area of nonblanchable erythema over his ischium. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the care plan?
  • A. Place the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion.
  • B. Teach the client to shift his weight every 15 min while sitting.
  • C. Assess pressure points every 24 hr.
  • D. Turn and reposition the client every 3 hr while in bed.

Explanation

Nonblanchable erythema indicates a Stage 1 pressure injury, which is reversible if proper measures are taken. Clients with paraplegia are at high risk due to limited mobility and decreased sensation. Teaching the client to shift weight every 15 minutes while sitting helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improve circulation, and prevent further tissue damage.
5. A nurse is assessing a group of clients at risk of developing a pressure injury. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients is at the greatest risk?
  • A. A client who has dementia and is incontinent of urine
  • B. A client who is 2 days postoperative following orthopedic surgery
  • C. A client who has a T-tube following an open cholecystectomy
  • D. A client who has had a recent myocardial infarction

Explanation

A client with dementia and urinary incontinence is at the greatest risk for developing pressure injuries because they may be unable to recognize or communicate discomfort, reposition themselves, or maintain skin hygiene. Constant exposure to moisture from incontinence leads to skin maceration and breakdown, increasing the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation.
6. 92. A nurse is counseling a group of clients from a town that was affected by a hurricane 6 months ago. For which of the following clients should the nurse initiate a referral to assess for the presence of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? (Select all that apply.)
  • A. A client who moved to an apartment located on higher ground than her previous home.
  • B. A client who has frequent nightmares about the hurricane.
  • C. A client who expresses a realization that life will not return to the way it was before the hurricane.
  • D. A client who describes having persistent feelings of anger about the hurricane.
  • E. A client who describes feeling disconnected from those around him following the hurricane.

Explanation

B. A client who has frequent nightmares about the hurricane Re-experiencing the traumatic event through nightmares or flashbacks is a hallmark symptom of PTSD. These intrusive memories can cause significant distress and disrupt daily functioning. D. A client who describes having persistent feelings of anger about the hurricane Persistent anger, irritability, or emotional outbursts months after a traumatic event may indicate difficulty processing the trauma. This ongoing emotional dysregulation is consistent with PTSD. E. A client who describes feeling disconnected from those around him following the hurricane Emotional numbing, detachment, or feelings of estrangement from others are also common in PTSD. The individual may feel isolated or unable to relate to others, even close friends or family.
7. A nurse is providing teaching to the guardians of a toddler about discipline techniques. Which of the following statements by the guardian indicates an understanding of the teaching?
  • A. "I will set a timer for 10 minutes for each timeout session."
  • B. "My child will learn rules through physical punishment."
  • C. "I will remind my child of their misbehavior to reinforce discipline."
  • D. "A timeout session should begin once my child is quiet."

Explanation

A timeout is an effective, age-appropriate discipline technique for toddlers that teaches self-control. The timeout should begin when the child becomes quiet, not while they are still crying or yelling. This helps reinforce calm behavior as the expected response. The general guideline is 1 minute per year of age (e.g., 2 minutes for a 2-year-old). The guardian should calmly explain the reason for the timeout and resume positive interaction afterward.
8. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has stress incontinence. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
  • A. "Attempt to void every 2 hours."
  • B. "Perform Kegel exercises several times daily."
  • C. "Maintain a daily fluid intake of 1,000 to 1,200 mL/day."
  • D. "Take prescribed diuretics no later than 2000."
  • E. "Maintain optimal body weight for height."

Explanation

A. "Attempt to void every 2 hours." Establishing a voiding schedule helps prevent unplanned urine leakage by emptying the bladder at regular intervals. This bladder training technique reduces pressure on the bladder and improves control. B. "Perform Kegel exercises several times daily." Kegel (pelvic floor) exercises strengthen the muscles that control urination. Performing them several times daily increases urethral closure pressure, helping prevent urine leakage when coughing, sneezing, or laughing. E. "Maintain optimal body weight for height." Excess body weight increases abdominal pressure on the bladder, worsening stress incontinence. Achieving and maintaining a healthy weight reduces this pressure and improves bladder control.
9. 71. A nurse is providing teaching to the guardians of a toddler about discipline techniques. Which of the following statements by the guardian indicates an understanding of the teaching?
  • A. "I will set a timer for 10 minutes for each timeout session."
  • B. "My child will learn rules through physical punishment."
  • C. "I will remind my child of their misbehavior to reinforce discipline."
  • D. "A timeout session should begin once my child is quiet."

Explanation

A timeout is an effective, age-appropriate discipline technique for toddlers that teaches self-control. The timeout should begin when the child becomes quiet, not while they are still crying or yelling. This helps reinforce calm behavior as the expected response. The general guideline is 1 minute per year of age (e.g., 2 minutes for a 2-year-old). The guardian should calmly explain the reason for the timeout and resume positive interaction afterward.
10. 120. A nurse has been assigned to an internal disaster drill team and is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse classify with a green tag?
  • A. A client who has an open compound fracture of the humerus
  • B. A client who has multiple facial lacerations
  • C. A client who has a puncture wound in the right lower lung
  • D. A client who has full-thickness burns over the lower extremities

Explanation

In disaster triage, the green tag (minor) is used for clients with non–life-threatening injuries who can ambulate and wait for treatment after more critical clients have been stabilized. Multiple facial lacerations, while needing sutures and wound care, do not pose an immediate threat to life or limb.

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