ACCT 3621 Intermediate Accounting II
Access The Exact Questions for ACCT 3621 Intermediate Accounting II
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock 100 + Actual Exam Questions and Answers for ACCT 3621 Intermediate Accounting II on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Your Complete Practice Package: Ready to Go ACCT 3621 Intermediate Accounting II : Practice Questions & Answers
Free ACCT 3621 Intermediate Accounting II Questions
If C Corporation granted options on January 1, 2022, for 10 million shares and 10% of the options were forfeited, how would this affect the total compensation expense recognized for the year if the total expense for the options was initially estimated at $25 million?
-
$25 million
-
$22.5 million
-
$20 million
-
$27.5 million
Explanation
Correct Answer
B. $22.5 million
Explanation
If 10% of the options were forfeited, the company would only recognize compensation expense for the 90% of options expected to vest. Since the initial estimated expense was $25 million, reducing that by 10% gives a revised total compensation expense of $22.5 million. This aligns with accounting standards, where expenses are adjusted based on estimated forfeitures.
Why other options are wrong
A. $25 million
This is incorrect because it does not account for the forfeiture of 10% of the options. Companies are required to adjust compensation expense estimates for expected forfeitures to better reflect actual costs incurred related to stock-based compensation.
C. $20 million
This is incorrect because it assumes a 20% reduction instead of the actual 10%. Only 10% of the options were forfeited, so the expense should be reduced by 10%, not more. Using $20 million as the expense implies an overstatement of the forfeiture rate.
D. $27.5 million
This is incorrect because it implies an increase in expense despite a forfeiture. Forfeiting options reduces the number of shares expected to vest, and therefore reduces the total compensation cost. An increase would only happen if more shares were granted or if fair value per share increased.
Explain why preferred dividends are deducted from net income when calculating earnings available to common shareholders.
-
Preferred dividends are not considered an expense.
-
Preferred dividends are paid before common dividends.
-
Preferred dividends are included in operating income.
-
Preferred dividends affect the cash flow of the company.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B) Preferred dividends are paid before common dividends.
Explanation
When calculating earnings available to common shareholders, preferred dividends are deducted from net income because preferred shareholders have a priority claim on dividends over common shareholders. Since preferred dividends must be paid out before any dividends can be distributed to common shareholders, they are subtracted from net income to determine the portion of earnings that is available to common shareholders. This ensures that the calculation reflects only the earnings that are attributable to the common shareholders.
Why other options are wrong
A) Preferred dividends are not considered an expense.
While preferred dividends are not considered an expense in the income statement, they are still subtracted from net income when calculating earnings available to common shareholders. They represent a distribution of profits rather than a business expense.
C) Preferred dividends are included in operating income.
This is incorrect because preferred dividends are not part of operating income. They are a distribution of profit after operating income has been determined, so they are deducted from net income rather than operating income.
D) Preferred dividends affect the cash flow of the company.
This is not the reason why preferred dividends are deducted when calculating earnings available to common shareholders. While preferred dividends do affect cash flow, the deduction from net income reflects the priority claim of preferred shareholders on dividends, not the cash flow impact.
When a corporation issues different types of securities in a combined sale, it allocates the proceeds between the securities based on the ________ of each security.
-
stated value
-
par value
-
relative fair value
-
market value
Explanation
Correct Answer
C. relative fair value
Explanation
When a corporation issues different types of securities (such as common stock and bonds) in a combined offering, it allocates the total proceeds based on the relative fair value of each security. This method ensures that each component is recognized appropriately in the financial statements according to its fair market value proportion of the entire transaction.
Why other options are wrong
A. stated value
This is incorrect because stated value is often an arbitrary amount assigned to stock and does not reflect the actual worth or market value of the security. It is primarily used for legal or accounting purposes, not for allocating sale proceeds.
B. par value
This is incorrect because par value is usually a nominal amount assigned to shares and bears little relation to their actual market value. Using par value to allocate proceeds would not fairly represent the economic substance of the transaction.
D. market value
This is incorrect because while market value is relevant, the proper method is to allocate proceeds based on relative fair value, which compares the market values proportionally rather than just assigning full market value independently to each security.
Explain how purchasing treasury stock can affect a company's basic earnings per share. Which financial principle does this relate to?
-
It decreases the number of shares outstanding, potentially increasing EPS.
-
It has no effect on EPS.
-
It increases the number of shares outstanding, decreasing EPS.
-
It only affects retained earnings.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. It decreases the number of shares outstanding, potentially increasing EPS.
Explanation
When a company purchases its own stock and holds it as treasury stock, the number of shares outstanding decreases. This reduction in outstanding shares can increase the basic earnings per share (EPS), as the company's net income is now distributed over a smaller number of shares. Basic EPS is calculated by dividing net income by the weighted average shares outstanding, so a decrease in outstanding shares results in a higher EPS, assuming net income remains the same. This principle is related to the concept of capital structure, specifically the impact of treasury stock transactions on the total number of shares outstanding.
Why other options are wrong
B. It has no effect on EPS.
This is incorrect because purchasing treasury stock does affect EPS by reducing the number of shares outstanding, which can lead to an increase in EPS.
C. It increases the number of shares outstanding, decreasing EPS.
This is incorrect because purchasing treasury stock actually decreases the number of shares outstanding, not increases them. A reduction in shares outstanding can increase EPS, not decrease it.
D. It only affects retained earnings.
This is incorrect because while purchasing treasury stock does reduce retained earnings, it also directly impacts the number of shares outstanding, which in turn can affect EPS. Therefore, it affects more than just retained earnings.
A company has 1,000,000 shares outstanding and declares a 10% stock dividend. After the dividend, the company also executes a 2-for-1 stock split. How should the weighted-average shares outstanding be adjusted for the next reporting period?
-
1,100,000 shares.
-
2,200,000 shares.
-
1,000,000 shares.
-
1,200,000 shares.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B) 2,200,000 shares.
Explanation
The stock dividend increases the number of shares outstanding by 10%. Therefore, after the 10% stock dividend, the company will have 1,100,000 shares (1,000,000 * 1.10). Following the 2-for-1 stock split, the total number of shares will double, resulting in 2,200,000 shares. The weighted-average shares outstanding for the next reporting period would reflect this increase.
Why other options are wrong
A) 1,100,000 shares.
This is incorrect because, while the stock dividend increases the shares to 1,100,000, the subsequent 2-for-1 stock split will double the number of shares to 2,200,000.
C) 1,000,000 shares.
This is incorrect because the stock dividend and stock split both increase the number of shares outstanding, so the weighted-average shares outstanding should reflect these changes.
D) 1,200,000 shares.
This is incorrect because after the stock dividend, the number of shares is 1,100,000. The stock split then doubles that number to 2,200,000 shares, not 1,200,000.
If a company grants stock options with an estimated fair value of $5 per option for 1,000 options, how should the company recognize the compensation expense if the options vest over four years?
-
$5,000 as an expense in the first year.
-
$1,250 as an expense each year for four years.
-
$5,000 as an expense at the end of the four years.
-
$0 until the options are exercised.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B) $1,250 as an expense each year for four years.
Explanation
When stock options are granted, the company must recognize compensation expenses based on the fair value of the options over the vesting period. In this case, the total fair value of the 1,000 options is $5 * 1,000 = $5,000. Since the options vest over four years, the company will recognize an expense of $1,250 each year ($5,000 ÷ 4) during the vesting period.
Why other options are wrong
A) $5,000 as an expense in the first year.
This is incorrect because the expense is spread over the vesting period, not recorded all in the first year.
C) $5,000 as an expense at the end of the four years.
This is incorrect because the expense must be recognized over the vesting period rather than all at once at the end.
D) $0 until the options are exercised.
This is incorrect because the expense is recognized over the vesting period, not when the options are exercised.
What is the primary purpose of the preemptive right granted to shareholders?
-
To maintain a proportional ownership interest in the corporation
-
To influence corporate policy through voting
-
To ensure a minimum dividend payout
-
To receive priority in asset distribution during liquidation
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. To maintain a proportional ownership interest in the corporation
Explanation
The primary purpose of the preemptive right is to allow shareholders to maintain their proportional ownership interest in the corporation when new shares are issued. This right gives existing shareholders the first opportunity to purchase additional shares before the company offers them to other investors, thus preventing dilution of their ownership stake in the company.
Why other options are wrong
B. To influence corporate policy through voting
While shareholders do have voting rights, the preemptive right is specifically related to the ability to maintain ownership by purchasing additional shares, not about influencing corporate policy through voting.
C. To ensure a minimum dividend payout
The preemptive right does not guarantee a minimum dividend payout. It is concerned with maintaining ownership proportions when new shares are issued, not with guaranteeing dividends.
D. To receive priority in asset distribution during liquidation
The preemptive right does not provide priority in asset distribution during liquidation. Priority in liquidation is typically determined by the seniority of the claims (e.g., creditors, preferred shareholders). The preemptive right is specifically about maintaining ownership interest, not liquidation preferences.
What is the primary accounting treatment for share-based compensation when a company does not estimate forfeitures?
-
Recognize the total fair value of the options granted as expense
-
Only expense the options that are exercised
-
Expense the options based on historical forfeiture rates
-
Record no expense until the options are exercised
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. Recognize the total fair value of the options granted as expense
Explanation
When a company does not estimate forfeitures, it is required to recognize the total fair value of the share-based compensation granted as an expense, regardless of whether some options are ultimately forfeited. This treatment aligns with accounting standards (such as ASC 718) which state that the total value should be recognized and adjusted for actual forfeitures as they occur. By recognizing the entire fair value at the time of grant, the company ensures that compensation expense reflects the total value of options granted to employees, even if some are forfeited in the future.
Why other options are wrong
B. Only expense the options that are exercised
This is incorrect because share-based compensation expense is recognized over the vesting period, based on the total fair value of the options granted, regardless of whether the options are exercised. This treatment ensures that the company matches the expense with the services rendered during the vesting period.
C. Expense the options based on historical forfeiture rates
While some companies may use historical forfeiture rates as a basis for estimating forfeitures, the correct treatment when forfeitures are not estimated is to expense the total fair value of the options granted. The expense is adjusted for actual forfeitures as they occur.
D. Record no expense until the options are exercised
This is incorrect because share-based compensation expense is recognized over the vesting period, not when the options are exercised. Waiting until the options are exercised would delay the recognition of the compensation expense and would not align with the matching principle in accounting.
Explain how treasury stock transactions can affect the calculation of basic earnings per share.
-
They increase the number of shares outstanding, thus lowering EPS.
-
They decrease the number of shares outstanding, thus increasing EPS.
-
They have no effect on the number of shares outstanding.
-
They only affect diluted EPS, not basic EPS.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B. They decrease the number of shares outstanding, thus increasing EPS.
Explanation
Treasury stock consists of shares that were previously issued and later repurchased by the company. These shares are not considered outstanding, so when a company buys back its own shares, the total number of outstanding shares decreases. Since basic earnings per share (EPS) is calculated by dividing net income by the weighted average number of shares outstanding, a lower share count leads to a higher EPS, assuming net income remains unchanged.
Why other options are wrong
A. They increase the number of shares outstanding, thus lowering EPS.
This is incorrect because treasury stock is repurchased by the company and removed from the pool of outstanding shares. Therefore, it decreases—not increases—the number of shares outstanding. An increase in shares outstanding would lower EPS, but treasury stock causes the opposite effect.
C. They have no effect on the number of shares outstanding.
This is incorrect because treasury stock directly affects the number of shares outstanding. Shares held in treasury are excluded from this count, so repurchasing stock reduces the denominator in the EPS calculation and impacts the final EPS figure.
D. They only affect diluted EPS, not basic EPS.
This is incorrect because treasury stock affects both basic and diluted EPS. While diluted EPS accounts for potential shares from convertible securities or options, basic EPS is impacted by the actual number of shares outstanding—which is reduced when shares are repurchased and held as treasury stock.
A company grants stock options to its employees that vest over a three-year period. If the total fair value of the options is determined to be $300,000, how much compensation expense should the company recognize in its financial statements each year during the vesting period?
-
$100,000 per year.
-
$150,000 per year.
-
$300,000 per year.
-
$75,000 per year.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. $100,000 per year.
Explanation
When stock options vest over a period of time, the total fair value of the options is allocated evenly over the vesting period as compensation expense. In this case, the total fair value is $300,000 and the vesting period is 3 years. Therefore, the company should recognize $300,000 ÷ 3 = $100,000 per year as compensation expense.
Why other options are wrong
B. $150,000 per year
This is incorrect because it would result in a total expense of $450,000 over three years, which exceeds the actual fair value of the options granted. The expense must match the total fair value determined at the grant date.
C. $300,000 per year
This is incorrect because it would recognize the entire compensation expense in the first year instead of spreading it evenly over the 3-year vesting period. The correct accounting treatment is to allocate the cost evenly unless otherwise specified.
D. $75,000 per year
This is incorrect because it would only total $225,000 over three years, which underreports the total fair value of the options and violates proper accounting standards for share-based compensation.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .