ATI NUR 250 Summer 1 2025 Midpoint Assessment

ATI NUR 250 Summer 1 2025 Midpoint Assessment

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Free ATI NUR 250 Summer 1 2025 Midpoint Assessment Questions

1.

 Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a non-modifiable risk factor for disease

  • Genetics

  • Sunbathing

  • Smoking

  • Unhealthy diet

Explanation

Correct Answer A: Genetics

Explanation:

Genetics is a non-modifiable risk factor because it cannot be changed or influenced by behavior or lifestyle. A person’s inherited genetic makeup can predispose them to certain diseases, such as diabetes, heart disease, or certain cancers. While the effects of genetic risk can sometimes be managed, the genetic trait itself cannot be modified.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Sunbathing

Sunbathing is a modifiable behavior. Individuals can reduce their risk for skin cancer and other sun-related conditions by using sunscreen, wearing protective clothing, and avoiding peak sun exposure.

C. Smoking

Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for numerous diseases, including lung cancer, heart disease, and stroke. Quitting smoking reduces health risks significantly.

D. Unhealthy diet

An unhealthy diet is a modifiable risk factor. People can make dietary changes to improve their health and reduce the risk of conditions such as obesity, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes.


2.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse anticipate a provider's prescription for a referral to manage the client's tracheostomy?

  • Occupational therapist

  • Respiratory therapist

  • Social worker

  • Registered dietitian

Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Respiratory therapist

Explanation:

A respiratory therapist specializes in airway management and will assist with the care and maintenance of a tracheostomy. This includes suctioning, changing inner cannulas, managing oxygen delivery systems, and providing education on tracheostomy care. Collaboration with a respiratory therapist ensures proper airway clearance, optimal oxygenation, and prevention of complications such as obstruction or infection, making them the appropriate referral for tracheostomy management.


3.

 Which of the following is the correct amount in milliliters (mL) the nurse should administer for a diphenhydramine 30 mg IM stat dose? Available is diphenhydramine 50 mg/1 mL

  • 0.4 mL

  • 0.5 mL

  • 0.6 mL

  • 0.7 mL

Explanation

Correct Answer C: 0.6 mL

Explanation:

To determine the volume to administer, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration available. The provider ordered 30 mg of diphenhydramine, and the vial contains 50 mg per 1 mL. Using the formula 30 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL equals 0.6 mL. This is the exact volume needed to deliver 30 mg of the medication. The answer is correctly rounded to the nearest tenth and includes a leading zero without a trailing zero, as per medication calculation standards.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. 0.4 mL

Administering 0.4 mL would only provide 20 mg of diphenhydramine, which is insufficient for the prescribed dose.

B. 0.5 mL

A dose of 0.5 mL would deliver 25 mg of diphenhydramine, which is less than the ordered 30 mg.

D. 0.7 mL

A dose of 0.7 mL would deliver 35 mg, exceeding the prescribed 30 mg and risking overdose


4.

The healthcare provider orders Valium 8 mg IV now. The concentration available is 5 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?

  • 1.4 mL​
  • 1.8 mL​
  • 1.2 mL​
  • 1.6 mL

Explanation

Explanation
Use the formula:
Dose ordered ÷ Concentration = Volume to administer​
8 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 1.6 mL
The nurse will need to administer 1.6 mL of Valium to provide the prescribed 8 mg dose.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) 1.4 mL:​
1.4 mL × 5 mg/mL = 7 mg — too little.
B) 1.8 mL:​
1.8 mL × 5 mg/mL = 9 mg — too much.
C) 1.2 mL:​
1.2 mL × 5 mg/mL = 6 mg — too little.
5.

Which of the following should be done with the information gathered during a community health assessment as part of the core function of assessment

  • Prepare a plan to address a health issue in a specific area of the city

  • Conduct focus groups with local residents to discuss their usage of public health services

  • Post the analyzed findings on the health department section of the city's website

  • Educate members of a vulnerable population identified in the assessment about available public health services

Explanation

Correct Answer C: Post the analyzed findings on the health department section of the city's website

Explanation:

Disseminating the findings of a community health assessment is a key component of the core public health function of assessment. Sharing the analyzed data with the community, such as through the health department’s website, ensures transparency, public awareness, and provides the foundation for community-wide engagement and planning. It helps inform stakeholders, policymakers, and residents about local health needs and resources.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Prepare a plan to address a health issue in a specific area of the city

This action falls under the policy development function, which involves creating strategic plans and interventions based on assessed data, not part of the assessment phase itself.

B. Conduct focus groups with local residents to discuss their usage of public health services

This is part of gathering qualitative data, which occurs during the assessment, not after the data has already been collected and analyzed.

D. Educate members of a vulnerable population identified in the assessment about available public health services

This is part of the assurance function, which focuses on ensuring people have access to needed services, not part of the assessment function.


6.

 Which of the following tasks can the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel (AP)

  • Obtaining a blood pressure for a client who is to be discharged later in the day.

  • Providing tracheostomy care for a client.

  • Teaching a client who is preoperative how to use an incentive spirometer.

  • Assessing a client who just returned from surgery.

Explanation

Correct Answer  A: Obtaining a blood pressure for a client who is to be discharged later in the day.

Explanation:

Obtaining vital signs, including blood pressure, is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel (AP) and can be safely delegated as long as the client is stable. The nurse remains responsible for interpreting the findings and following up as needed.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Providing tracheostomy care for a client

Tracheostomy care is a sterile and complex procedure that requires nursing judgment and must be performed by a licensed nurse, not an AP.

C. Teaching a client who is preoperative how to use an incentive spirometer

Client teaching requires nursing knowledge and clinical judgment. It cannot be delegated to an AP.

D. Assessing a client who just returned from surgery

Client assessment is a nursing responsibility that requires critical thinking and must be done by a licensed nurse, especially after surgery when complications are possible.


7.

A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus. A referral for a dietician has been initiated. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the purpose for the referral?

  • "The dietician will coordinate my care."

  • "The dietician will help me with my diet due to diabetes."

  • "The dietician will change my treatment plan."

  • "The dietician will assist me in affording my medication."

Explanation

Correct Answer: B. "The dietician will help me with my diet due to diabetes."

Explanation:

The dietician’s role is to help clients with diabetes develop a personalized meal plan that manages blood glucose levels while promoting balanced nutrition. Proper dietary management is crucial for clients with type I diabetes because insulin dosing is closely linked to carbohydrate intake. Collaboration with a dietician helps clients understand food choices, portion control, and meal timing to maintain stable blood sugar levels and prevent complications.


8.

Which of the following should the nurse identify as part of the medication reconciliation process for an older adult client transferred from a long-term care facility

  • Discontinuation of medications

  • Recommendation for prescribed medications

  • Medications from another facility

  • Medications for another pharmacy

Explanation

Correct Answer C: Medications from another facility

Explanation:

Medication reconciliation involves compiling a complete and accurate list of all medications a client is currently taking—including prescriptions, over-the-counter drugs, herbal supplements, and medications from another facility. The goal is to ensure continuity of care and avoid omissions, duplications, or interactions when transitioning between care settings.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Discontinuation of medications

This may occur after reconciliation but is not a step within the process itself. Reconciliation is about comparing and verifying medications, not deciding on discontinuation.

B. Recommendation for prescribed medications

Making recommendations is typically the role of the provider or pharmacist after reconciliation, not a direct step in the nurse's reconciliation responsibilities.

D. Medications for another pharmacy

The source of the pharmacy is not the focus of reconciliation. The nurse is concerned with what medications the client is taking, regardless of where they were filled.


9.

A patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes asks a nurse, "How does insulin normally work in my body?" The nurse explains that normal insulin has which action in the body?

  • It stimulates the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.​
  • It promotes the synthesis of amino acids into glucose.​
  • It stimulates the pancreas to reabsorb glucose.​
  • It promotes the passage of glucose into cells for energy.

Explanation

Explanation
Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that allows glucose to enter cells, where it can be used for energy. Without insulin, glucose stays in the bloodstream, leading to high blood sugar levels. In type 1 diabetes, the body doesn’t produce insulin, so glucose can’t move into the cells properly.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) It stimulates the liver to convert glycogen to glucose:​
This is the action of glucagon, not insulin. Insulin promotes glucose storage, not release.
B) It promotes the synthesis of amino acids into glucose:​
This describes gluconeogenesis, a process insulin typically inhibits.
C) It stimulates the pancreas to reabsorb glucose:​
The pancreas produces insulin; it doesn’t reabsorb glucose. This is not a function of insulin.
10.

A nurse is assessing a client who has iron deficiency. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • Tooth decay

  • Goiter

  • Fatigue

  • Tetany

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Fatigue

Explanation:

Fatigue is a classic sign of iron deficiency because low iron levels result in decreased hemoglobin production, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. This causes the client to feel weak and tired even with minimal activity. Other symptoms may include pallor, shortness of breath, and dizziness. Addressing iron deficiency through diet or supplements is essential to restore oxygen-carrying capacity and relieve symptoms.


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