APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University

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Free APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University Questions

1.

The nurse practitioner suspects that a 3-year-old child has a Still's murmur. The MOST appropriate intervention at this time would be to:

  • refer the child to a pediatric cardiologist.
  • order an echocardiogram.
  • re-evaluate the child at the next routine visit.
  • order a chest X-ray.

Explanation

Explanation
A Still's murmur is a common physiologic (innocent) murmur heard in children, particularly between the ages of 2 and 6 years. It is typically benign and non-pathologic, caused by the turbulent blood flow through the heart. Still's murmurs are often characterized as soft, systolic, and vibratory and are typically heard along the left sternal border or the apex. In the absence of other symptoms or abnormal findings, the most appropriate intervention is to re-evaluate the child at the next routine visit, as Still's murmurs tend to resolve on their own with age.
2.

When considering a diagnosis of Addison's disease, the MOST appropriate diagnostic study is the:

  • comprehensive metabolic panel.
  • adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test.
  • thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.
  • prolactin testing.

Explanation

Explanation
Addison's disease is characterized by primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol. The ACTH stimulation test is the most appropriate diagnostic study for this condition. In this test, synthetic ACTH is administered, and the cortisol response is measured. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands fail to produce an adequate cortisol response. A comprehensive metabolic panel may reveal electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hyponatremia, hyperkalemia), but it is not a definitive test for Addison’s disease. TSH levels and prolactin testing are used to assess thyroid and pituitary function, respectively, and are not specific to Addison's disease.
3.

Which of the following patients is the MOST likely to be at risk for bladder cancer?

  • A 56-year-old female with a history of bladder sling surgery
  • A 60-year-old female with recurrent urinary tract infections
  • A 40-year-old male with a history of marijuana use
  • A 63-year-old male who smokes cigarettes

Explanation

Explanation
The most significant risk factor for bladder cancer is cigarette smoking. Smoking is the leading cause of bladder cancer, contributing to approximately 50% of all cases. The toxins in tobacco smoke are excreted in the urine, and chronic exposure to these carcinogens can damage the bladder lining, leading to the development of cancer. The risk increases with age and duration of smoking.
4.

A 20-year-old student presents with an oval salmon-colored macule on the chest that has progressed to a generalized exanthem from the top down over several weeks. The nurse practitioner knows that treatment for this condition may include:

  • treatment of pruritic areas until the lesions spontaneously resolve.
  • an oral antihistamine and topical antifungal cream.
  • an oral antifungal agent.
  • a tapering dose of oral corticosteroids.

Explanation

Explanation
The described presentation is characteristic of pityriasis rosea, a self-limited, benign skin condition commonly seen in young adults. The classic "herald patch" followed by a generalized exanthem that progresses from top to bottom is a hallmark sign of this condition. Treatment typically focuses on managing symptoms such as pruritus (itching) with topical creams or antihistamines. The condition generally resolves on its own without the need for extensive medical intervention. In some cases, oral antihistamines or topical corticosteroids may be used to alleviate itching, but no active treatment is typically required to speed up resolution.
5.

Which of the following signs or symptoms is typical of hypothyroidism?

  • Cold intolerance
  • Heat intolerance
  • Weakness
  • Increased perspiration

Explanation

Explanation
Cold intolerance (A) is a classic symptom of hypothyroidism. People with hypothyroidism have an underactive thyroid, which leads to a slower metabolism and difficulty regulating body temperature, making them more sensitive to cold. Heat intolerance (B) is typically seen in hyperthyroidism, where an overactive thyroid causes an increased metabolism and the body becomes more sensitive to heat. Weakness (C) is also common in hypothyroidism due to muscle weakness associated with the condition, but cold intolerance is more specifically associated with it. Increased perspiration (D) is generally seen in hyperthyroidism due to an elevated metabolic rate, not in hypothyroidism.
6.

Which of the following is a secondary cause of hyperlipidemia?

  • Hypothyroidism
  • Recent dietary excess and weight gain
  • Lack of exercise
  • Osteoporosis

Explanation

Explanation
Hypothyroidism is a secondary cause of hyperlipidemia because it can lead to an increase in cholesterol levels. The thyroid hormone plays a crucial role in lipid metabolism, and low levels of thyroid hormone (as seen in hypothyroidism) can impair the body's ability to process lipids properly, leading to elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels.
7.

A 5-year-old male is repeatedly soiling his underwear after previously being potty trained. The patient is likely to also have:

  • delayed sexual development.
  • a urinary tract infection.
  • constipation.
  • laxative overuse.

Explanation

Explanation
The most likely cause of soiling in a previously potty-trained child is constipation. When a child has constipation, stool can build up in the rectum, leading to an overflow of liquid stool, which may cause the child to soil their underwear. This is sometimes referred to as "encopresis" and is common in young children. It can occur even if the child is able to control bowel movements at other times. Delayed sexual development (A) is not typically associated with soiling. A urinary tract infection (B) might cause urinary symptoms such as pain or urgency, but it is not typically associated with fecal soiling. Laxative overuse (D) can cause diarrhea and abdominal discomfort, but it is less likely to be the cause of soiling in this context.
8.

A 6-week-old infant is diagnosed with congenital muscular torticollis. When discussing treatment options with the parents, the nurse practitioner recommends:

  • referring the infant to a pediatric orthopedic surgeon.
  • a home exercise program that includes positioning, handling, and passive stretching exercises.
  • an immediate referral to physical therapy.
  • application of moist heat and avoidance of the prone position.

Explanation

Explanation
Congenital muscular torticollis (CMT) is commonly treated with conservative measures, particularly in infants diagnosed early. The initial treatment approach involves a home exercise program that focuses on positioning, handling, and passive stretching exercises to improve neck mobility and muscle flexibility. Parents are instructed on how to gently stretch the affected neck muscles and position the baby to encourage equal use of both sides of the neck. Early intervention with these techniques often results in good outcomes. Referral to physical therapy may be needed if conservative measures do not improve the condition, but this is typically not the first step unless more advanced therapy is required.
9.

Interstitial cystitis has been diagnosed in a 46-year-old female. The persistent (>6 weeks) symptoms that are most likely to suggest this diagnosis are:

  • hematuria and pelvic pain.
  • painful urination and frequency.
  • flank pain and bloating.
  • frequency with leukocytes in the urine.

Explanation

Explanation
Interstitial cystitis (IC), also known as painful bladder syndrome, is characterized by persistent pelvic pain, painful urination, and increased urinary frequency (often with urgency). These symptoms must last for more than 6 weeks and cannot be explained by another underlying condition, such as urinary tract infections or bladder cancer. While hematuria and pelvic pain (A) can be seen in IC, they are not as specific to the condition as the combination of painful urination and frequency (B), which is more indicative of IC. Flank pain and bloating (C) are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal or renal conditions, and frequency with leukocytes in the urine (D) may indicate a urinary tract infection or other inflammatory condition, but it is not typical for IC, which generally does not show significant infection-related findings in the urine.
10.

Which class of antihypertensive agents should not be considered as initial therapy for a 43-year-old patient who has uncomplicated essential hypertension?

  • Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
  • Beta blockers
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Angiotensin receptor blockers

Explanation

Explanation
Beta blockers are generally not recommended as first-line therapy for uncomplicated essential hypertension. While they can be effective in lowering blood pressure, they are less effective than other classes of antihypertensive medications (such as ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, and angiotensin receptor blockers) in preventing cardiovascular events like stroke or heart attack in patients with uncomplicated hypertension. Beta blockers are usually reserved for specific indications, such as post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, or arrhythmias.

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