APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University
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Free APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University Questions
Current evidence suggests that the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease may be reduced or delayed by:
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treating testosterone deficiency.
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treating estrogen deficiency.
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eating a gluten-free diet.
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increasing physical activity.
Explanation
Increasing physical activity has been shown in numerous studies to have a protective effect against the development of Alzheimer's disease. Regular exercise, particularly aerobic exercise, improves brain health, enhances cognitive function, and helps reduce the risk of neurodegenerative diseases. Physical activity increases blood flow to the brain, supports the growth of new neurons, and helps manage other risk factors such as vascular health and diabetes, which are linked to Alzheimer's disease.
A 40-year-old patient is suspected of having a thyroid nodule. Initial evaluation begins with ordering a(n):
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CT scan and a thyroid-stimulating hormone level.
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thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level and thyroid ultrasound.
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thyroid panel and thyroid scintigraphy.
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referral to a surgeon for fine-needle biopsy.
Explanation
The initial evaluation of a suspected thyroid nodule includes measuring TSH levels to assess thyroid function and determine if the nodule is functioning or non-functioning. If the TSH is normal or low, a thyroid ultrasound is the next step. The ultrasound provides detailed information about the nodule's size, shape, and characteristics (e.g., solid or cystic, presence of calcifications, etc.), which helps determine the likelihood of malignancy. If the ultrasound suggests suspicious features, fine-needle aspiration biopsy may be recommended for further evaluation.
Depression is suspected in a 37-year-old patient. The finding that must be present to confirm depression is:
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altered sleep patterns
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fatigue
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anhedonia
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inappropriate guilt
Explanation
Anhedonia, the inability to experience pleasure or interest in activities that were once enjoyable, is a core symptom of depression and is essential for diagnosing the condition. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), at least five symptoms, including anhedonia, must be present for a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. While altered sleep patterns, fatigue, and inappropriate guilt are common symptoms, anhedonia is the hallmark symptom that differentiates depression from other conditions.
The therapeutic international normalized ratio (INR) for a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin) to manage chronic atrial fibrillation is expected to be:
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increased.
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decreased.
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the same as the partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
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three times the expected prothrombin time (PT).
Explanation
The therapeutic INR for a patient on warfarin (Coumadin) for chronic atrial fibrillation is typically targeted between 2.0 and 3.0. This corresponds to a prothrombin time (PT) that is approximately 2 to 3 times longer than the normal PT. The INR helps standardize PT results across different laboratories. Warfarin therapy increases the INR, but the most accurate description is that the INR is approximately three times the normal PT when it is therapeutically adjusted for anticoagulation therapy in patients with atrial fibrillation.
A 20-year-old student presents with an oval salmon-colored macule on the chest that has progressed to a generalized exanthem from the top down over several weeks. The nurse practitioner knows that treatment for this condition may include:
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treatment of pruritic areas until the lesions spontaneously resolve.
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an oral antihistamine and topical antifungal cream.
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an oral antifungal agent.
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a tapering dose of oral corticosteroids.
Explanation
The described presentation is characteristic of pityriasis rosea, a self-limited, benign skin condition commonly seen in young adults. The classic "herald patch" followed by a generalized exanthem that progresses from top to bottom is a hallmark sign of this condition. Treatment typically focuses on managing symptoms such as pruritus (itching) with topical creams or antihistamines. The condition generally resolves on its own without the need for extensive medical intervention. In some cases, oral antihistamines or topical corticosteroids may be used to alleviate itching, but no active treatment is typically required to speed up resolution.
The finding that would be most concerning for testicular cancer in a 22-year-old male is:
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painless unilateral testicular swelling.
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an inflamed scrotum.
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bilateral testicular pain.
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bilateral diffuse scrotal edema.
Explanation
Painless unilateral testicular swelling is the most concerning finding for testicular cancer. Testicular cancer often presents with a painless, firm mass or swelling in one testicle, which may or may not be associated with a sensation of heaviness in the scrotum. This finding requires prompt evaluation, including physical examination and imaging (e.g., scrotal ultrasound), to determine if the mass is malignant. Early detection of testicular cancer is critical, as it is highly treatable when caught early.
A 6-week-old infant is diagnosed with congenital muscular torticollis. When discussing treatment options with the parents, the nurse practitioner recommends:
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referring the infant to a pediatric orthopedic surgeon.
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a home exercise program that includes positioning, handling, and passive stretching exercises.
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an immediate referral to physical therapy.
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application of moist heat and avoidance of the prone position.
Explanation
Congenital muscular torticollis (CMT) is commonly treated with conservative measures, particularly in infants diagnosed early. The initial treatment approach involves a home exercise program that focuses on positioning, handling, and passive stretching exercises to improve neck mobility and muscle flexibility. Parents are instructed on how to gently stretch the affected neck muscles and position the baby to encourage equal use of both sides of the neck. Early intervention with these techniques often results in good outcomes. Referral to physical therapy may be needed if conservative measures do not improve the condition, but this is typically not the first step unless more advanced therapy is required.
A 57-year-old female has symptoms of overactive bladder. The patient is started on a beta-3 adrenergic receptor, which works by relaxing the smooth muscle of the bladder. The medication that falls in this category is:
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finasteride (Proscar).
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dutasteride (Avodart).
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tamsulosin (Flomax).
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mirabegron (Myrbetriq).
Explanation
Mirabegron (Myrbetriq) is a beta-3 adrenergic receptor agonist that works by relaxing the smooth muscle of the bladder, thereby increasing bladder capacity and reducing symptoms of overactive bladder (OAB), such as urgency, frequency, and incontinence. It targets the beta-3 adrenergic receptors in the bladder to help reduce muscle contraction and improve bladder storage.
When evaluating the alcohol use of a 42-year-old female, the average amount of alcohol consumption that increases health risks is defined as more than:
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1 drink per day.
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2 drinks per day.
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4 drinks per week.
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7 drinks per week.
Explanation
For healthy adult women, low-risk drinking is defined as no more than 7 standard drinks per week and no more than 3 drinks on any single day. Consuming more than 7 drinks per week on average is considered to increase health risks, including liver disease, cardiovascular problems, and certain types of cancer. Therefore, exceeding 7 drinks per week is associated with increased health risks for women, according to guidelines from the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) and the CDC.
A 57-year-old smoker who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents today with increased dyspnea and sputum production. His routine medications include ipratropium (Atrovent) 2-3 times daily. His medical record notes an allergy to penicillin. The nurse practitioner should avoid prescribing:
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doxycycline (Doryx).
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cefdinir (Omnicef).
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clarithromycin (Biaxin).
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levofloxacin (Levaquin).
Explanation
The patient has a known penicillin allergy, and cefdinir (Omnicef) is a cephalosporin antibiotic. Cephalosporins, particularly the first and second generations, have a similar beta-lactam structure to penicillins, which can cause cross-reactivity in patients with penicillin allergies. Therefore, cefdinir should be avoided in this patient due to the potential for an allergic reaction.
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