Nursing Pharmacology Final Exam at Fox Valley Technical College
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Free Nursing Pharmacology Final Exam at Fox Valley Technical College Questions
A client in the clinic is being seen for a reoccurring respiratory issue. The client is describing a medication that helps suppress her dry, hacky cough during the night so she can sleep. What medication should the nurse document?
- A. Antitussive like Dextromethorphan
- B. Nasal decongestant like Oxymetazoline
- C. Oral decongestant like Pseudoephedrine
- D. Expectorant like Guaifenesin
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer:
An antitussive, like Dextromethorphan, is a medication used to suppress coughing, especially when the cough is non-productive (dry and irritating). It works by affecting the cough center in the brain, which helps reduce the urge to cough, making it ideal for nighttime relief of a dry, hacky cough.
Correct Answer Is:
A. Antitussive like DextromethorphanA primary care provider prescribes sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat a patient’s recurring migraines. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include regarding medication administration? (Select 2 that apply)
- A. Take the drug at the onset of the migraine.
- B. Administer one nasal spray into each nostril.
- C. Can repeat the dose if the migraine is not relieved after 2 hours.
- D. Allow the tablet to dissolve under the tongue.
- E. Take once a day to prevent migraine.
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answers:
A. Take the drug at the onset of the migraine.
Sumatriptan is most effective when taken at the first sign of a migraine. Early administration helps stop the migraine process before symptoms become severe by causing vasoconstriction of cranial blood vessels and blocking pain pathways.
C. Can repeat the dose if the migraine is not relieved after 2 hours.
If the migraine is not relieved, a second dose may be taken after 2 hours, depending on the formulation and prescribed limits. This allows continued symptom control while staying within safe dosing guidelines.
Correct Answer Is:
A. Take the drug at the onset of the migraine.C. Can repeat the dose if the migraine is not relieved after 2 hours.
The nurse administers a dose of 4mg ondansetron (Zofran) to a client receiving chemotherapy. Which following assessment finding would indicate that the medication was effective for the client?
- A. The client reports a decrease in pain
- B. The client has improved oral intake
- C. The client's white blood cell count increases
- D. The client has decreased diarrhea
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer:
Ondansetron (Zofran) is an antiemetic commonly used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting, particularly in clients receiving chemotherapy. If the client is able to improve oral intake, it indicates that the nausea and vomiting have been effectively managed, as they are common side effects of chemotherapy. This suggests that the medication has been effective in controlling these symptoms.
Correct Answer Is:
B. The client has improved oral intakeA client has been using fluticasone (Flovent) for his asthma. He returns to the health care provider's office because he has a sore mouth. Assessment reveals white patches in the client's tongue. What is the best explanation for this?
- A. The client has been consuming hot beverages after the use of the inhaler, which irritated his throat.
- B. The client has limited his fluid intake, resulting in a dry mouth and tongue.
- C. The white patches are just the residue of the inhaler propellant that is coating the inside of his mouth.
- D. The client likely has developed thrush because he is not rinsing effectively after using the inhaler.
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer:
D. The client likely has developed thrush because he is not rinsing effectively after using the inhaler.
Fluticasone (Flovent) is an inhaled corticosteroid used for asthma. One common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids is the development of oral thrush (candidiasis), which is a fungal infection in the mouth characterized by white patches on the tongue and inside of the cheeks. This happens because corticosteroids can alter the normal balance of microorganisms in the mouth, allowing fungi like Candida to grow. Rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps to prevent this side effect by removing residual medication and reducing the risk of thrush.
Correct Answer Is:
D. The client likely has developed thrush because he is not rinsing effectively after using the inhaler.A nurse is educating a patient about nicotine replacement therapy using a nicotine patch. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about the proper use of the nicotine patch?
- A. "I will apply the patch to a clean, dry area of skin on my upper arm or chest."
- B. "I should change the patch to a different site each day to prevent skin irritation."
- C. "If I experience vivid dreams or trouble sleeping while using the patch, I should remove it before bedtime."
- D. "I can continue smoking while using the nicotine patch to help gradually reduce my nicotine intake."
Explanation
The patient should not continue smoking while using the nicotine patch. The nicotine patch provides a steady, controlled amount of nicotine, and smoking while using the patch could lead to nicotine overdose, causing symptoms like nausea, dizziness, and increased heart rate. The patient should stop smoking while using the patch and rely on the nicotine replacement therapy to reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms.
Correct Answer Is:
D. "I can continue smoking while using the nicotine patch to help gradually reduce my nicotine intake."When talking to a patient about taking the tricyclic antidepressant Amitriptyline, the health care professional should include which of the following pieces of information?
- A. Expect to see improvements within 3-5 days.
- B. Do not abruptly discontinue taking this medication.
- C. Do not take the drug with food high in tyramine.
- D. Use the drug only as needed for anxiety.
Explanation
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) used for conditions like depression, anxiety, and chronic pain. Abrupt discontinuation of TCAs can lead to withdrawal symptoms, including nausea, headache, and malaise. Therefore, it is important to gradually taper the medication under the supervision of a healthcare provider to avoid withdrawal.
Correct Answer Is:
B. Do not abruptly discontinue taking this medication.Which of the following statements are true regarding antipsychotic drugs? (Select 4 that apply.)
- A. Antipsychotic drugs reverse mental illness
- B. Antipsychotic drugs may cause neuroleptic malignant hyperthermia
- C. Many symptoms of psychosis, like hallucinations, can be controlled with medication
- D. Almost all clients are compliant with medications
- E. Antipsychotic drugs may cause extrapyramidal symptoms
- F. Antipsychotic drugs work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain
- G. Antipsychotic drugs may cause Cushing's disease
- H. Antipsychotic drugs are reversed by Acetylcysteine
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answers:
B. Antipsychotic drugs may cause neuroleptic malignant hyperthermia
Neuroleptic malignant hyperthermia (NMS) is a rare but life-threatening condition that can occur with the use of antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by fever, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysregulation. Immediate intervention is required if NMS is suspected.
C. Many symptoms of psychosis, like hallucinations, can be controlled with medication
Antipsychotic medications are effective in controlling symptoms of psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. These medications help manage these symptoms by modulating neurotransmitter activity, particularly dopamine.
E. Antipsychotic drugs may cause extrapyramidal symptoms
Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) include movement disorders like tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side effects can occur with antipsychotic medications, especially older first-generation antipsychotics.
F. Antipsychotic drugs work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain
Antipsychotics primarily work by blocking dopamine receptors (D2 receptors) in the brain. This action helps to control dopaminergic overactivity, which is thought to contribute to the symptoms of psychosis, such as hallucinations and delusions.
Correct Answer Is:
B. Antipsychotic drugs may cause neuroleptic malignant hyperthermiaC. Many symptoms of psychosis, like hallucinations, can be controlled with medication
E. Antipsychotic drugs may cause extrapyramidal symptoms
F. Antipsychotic drugs work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain
A patient is about to start taking sustained-release glipizide to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following administration instructions should be provided?
- A. Chew the tablet completely before swallowing
- B. Take it once a day, 30 minutes before selected meal.
- C. Take it in the evening before bedtime on an empty stomach
- D. Must drink 20 oz. water with the medication
Explanation
Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas. Sustained-release glipizide should be taken once daily before a meal, usually breakfast, to reduce the risk of hypoglycemia and to ensure proper blood glucose control around food intake. The tablet must be swallowed whole and timed with meals because insulin release increases, and taking it without food can lead to low blood sugar.
Correct Answer Is:
B. Take it once a day, 30 minutes before selected meal.The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with angina about sublingual nitroglycerin, a coronary vasodilator. Which statement indicated the client needs more medication teaching?
- A. "I may feel a little lightheaded so I should sit down after I take it."
- B. "If I have chest pain, I will put a tablet underneath my tongue."
- C. "If my pain is not relieved with 1 tablet, I should call 911 immediately."
- D. "I may feel flushed or get a headache after taking my nitroglycerin."
Explanation
The correct teaching for sublingual nitroglycerin involves taking one tablet every 5 minutes for up to 3 doses if chest pain persists. If the pain is not relieved after 3 doses, the client should then call 911. The client should not wait after one dose before calling 911, as this may indicate a more serious issue such as a heart attack.
Correct Answer Is:
C. "If my pain is not relieved with 1 tablet, I should call 911 immediately."Following a stroke, a client has been prescribed Aspirin 81mg daily. Why is this medication being administered to this client?
- A. To prevent atrial fibrillation from developing
- B. To decrease blood pressure
- C. To increase heart rate
- D. To prevent the formation of new blood clots
Explanation
Aspirin 81mg daily is often prescribed following a stroke to help prevent the formation of new blood clots. Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting the aggregation of platelets, which are involved in blood clot formation. This helps reduce the risk of another stroke or other cardiovascular events caused by clots.
Correct Answer Is:
D. To prevent the formation of new blood clotsHow to Order
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