ATI PHARMACOLOGY NSG 1540 EXAM 3
Access The Exact Questions for ATI PHARMACOLOGY NSG 1540 EXAM 3
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for ATI PHARMACOLOGY NSG 1540 EXAM 3 on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free ATI PHARMACOLOGY NSG 1540 EXAM 3 Questions
A nurse is teaching a client about the signs of salicylate toxicity while taking aspirin therapy. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- "If I start hearing ringing in my ears, I should notify my provider."
- "I should ignore any side effects as long as the medication helps my pain."
- "I should expect my breathing to slow down slightly while on aspirin."
- "Aspirin toxicity usually causes constipation, so I'll increase my fiber intake."
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) "If I start hearing ringing in my ears, I should notify my provider."
Tinnitus — ringing in the ears — is one of the earliest and most classic signs of salicylate toxicity, occurring when aspirin blood levels become excessive. Recognizing this symptom and promptly reporting it to the provider allows for timely intervention before toxicity progresses to more serious manifestations such as hyperventilation, metabolic acidosis, altered mental status, and cardiovascular collapse. This statement demonstrates correct understanding of the teaching.
Ignoring side effects is dangerous and directly contradicts safe medication practice. Aspirin toxicity causes increased respiratory rate (hyperventilation), not slowed breathing, as the body attempts to compensate for metabolic acidosis. Salicylate toxicity is associated with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea — not constipation — making increased fiber intake an inappropriate and misleading response.
A nurse is teaching a new nursing student about administering ivermectin to a client with a roundworm infection. Which instruction should the nurse emphasize to ensure safe and effective medication administration?
- Instruct the client to take ivermectin on an empty stomach for better absorption
- Explain that ivermectin is administered sublingually for rapid effect
- Tell the client to rise slowly after taking ivermectin to avoid dizziness
- Advise the client to take ivermectin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Instruct the client to take ivermectin on an empty stomach for better absorption
Ivermectin is an antiparasitic medication that should be taken on an empty stomach with water — at least one hour before or two hours after a meal — to maximize its oral bioavailability and absorption. Taking it with food, particularly a high-fat meal, significantly increases drug absorption unpredictably and can lead to elevated plasma levels and increased risk of adverse effects. Administering it on an empty stomach ensures consistent, safe, and effective drug delivery.
Ivermectin is not administered sublingually — it is an oral medication. While orthostatic dizziness can occur, instructing the client to rise slowly is a supportive measure, not the primary administration safety emphasis. Taking ivermectin with meals is specifically discouraged due to the risk of unpredictable increased absorption.
A nurse is assessing a client receiving treatment for active tuberculosis (TB). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- Nonproductive cough
- Weight loss of 2 lb in 1 week
- Yellow discoloration of the sclera
- Positive sputum culture after 3 weeks of treatment
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Yellow discoloration of the sclera.
Yellow discoloration of the sclera (jaundice) indicates hepatotoxicity, a serious and potentially life-threatening adverse effect of first-line TB medications, particularly isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. This requires immediate intervention including discontinuation of the offending drug and prompt medical evaluation. A nonproductive cough and mild weight loss can be expected during TB treatment. A positive sputum culture at 3 weeks is not immediately alarming as sputum conversion typically occurs within 2–8 weeks of treatment.
A nurse is reviewing the chart of a client who developed red man syndrome during vancomycin therapy. Which factor should the nurse identify as the most likely cause of this reaction?
- Administering the medication through a central venous catheter.
- Administering the medication intramuscularly.
- Administering the medication with a high-protein meal.
- Infusing the medication too rapidly.
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Infusing the medication too rapidly.
Red man syndrome is a non-allergic infusion-related reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin, leading to histamine release. It presents with flushing, erythema, and pruritus typically over the face, neck, and upper torso. It is prevented by infusing vancomycin slowly over at least 60 minutes. The route of administration (central line or IM) and food intake are not associated with red man syndrome.
A nurse is educating a client about antiretroviral medications. Which action should the nurse take to prevent potential drug interactions?
- Recommend the client take the antiretroviral medication on an empty stomach to enhance efficacy.
- Suggest the client mix the antiretroviral medication with alcohol for better absorption.
- Encourage the client to take the antiretroviral medication with grapefruit juice.
- Advise the client to inform the healthcare provider about all current medications, including over-the-counter and herbal supplements.
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Advise the client to inform the healthcare provider about all current medications, including over-the-counter and herbal supplements.
Many antiretroviral medications have significant interactions with other drugs, including OTC medications and herbal supplements such as St. John's Wort. Ensuring the healthcare provider has a complete medication list allows for review and prevention of harmful interactions. Taking medications on an empty stomach, with alcohol, or with grapefruit juice are all potentially harmful practices that can alter drug absorption, metabolism, and efficacy.
A client has been diagnosed with Clostridioides difficile infection after completing a 10-day course of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
- Place the client on contact precautions
- Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
- Use dedicated equipment (e.g., stethoscope, blood pressure cuff) for this client
- I will take a probiotic supplement during and after the antibiotic course
- Instruct the client to perform hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
- Administer loperamide to reduce diarrhea
Explanation
Correct Answers: A) Place the client on contact precautions, B) Encourage the client to increase fluid intake, and C) Use dedicated equipment for this client.
C. diff is transmitted via the fecal-oral route through spores, so contact precautions and dedicated equipment are essential to prevent spread. Increasing fluid intake addresses dehydration from diarrhea. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are ineffective against C. diff spores — soap and water must be used instead, making option E incorrect. Loperamide is contraindicated in C. diff as it slows gut motility and can worsen the infection by retaining toxins. Probiotics (option D) are a patient statement, not a nursing action, and while sometimes discussed adjunctively, they are not a standard approved nursing intervention for active C. diff infection.
A nurse is caring for a client who has sepsis and a prescription for vancomycin 1 g in 250 mL dextrose 5% (D₅W) over 2 hr by IV intermittent bolus. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
Explanation
Correct Answer: 125 mL/hr
To calculate the IV flow rate, use the formula: Volume (mL) ÷ Time (hr) = Rate (mL/hr). The total volume is 250 mL and the infusion time is 2 hours. Therefore: 250 mL ÷ 2 hr = 125 mL/hr. No trailing zero is used, and no leading zero is needed as the answer is a whole number greater than one. The nurse should set the IV pump to 125 mL/hr to deliver the vancomycin safely over the prescribed 2-hour period.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving gentamicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible complication?
- Dysuria
- Ototoxicity
- Constipation
- Diplopia
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Ototoxicity
Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic with well-established dose-dependent toxicities, the most serious of which are ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity results from damage to the hair cells of the cochlea and vestibular apparatus, presenting as tinnitus, hearing loss, and balance disturbances. Because this damage can be permanent and irreversible, nurses must monitor drug levels, assess hearing regularly, and watch for early warning signs throughout therapy.
Dysuria relates to urinary tract irritation and is not a characteristic complication of gentamicin. Constipation is not associated with aminoglycoside use. Diplopia — double vision — is linked to conditions such as myasthenia gravis or cranial nerve dysfunction, not gentamicin toxicity.
Provider's order says: 100 mL Ceftriaxone Sodium 1G to infuse over 30 minutes. What is the hourly rate?
Explanation
Correct Answer: 200 mL/hr
Using the formula: Hourly rate = Total volume ÷ Time in hours 100 mL ÷ 0.5 hours = 200 mL/hr Since the infusion is ordered over 30 minutes (0.5 hours), the IV pump must be set to deliver 200 mL per hour to administer the full 100 mL within the specified time frame.
A nurse in a community health clinic is administering seasonal inactive influenza vaccine. Before administering it, the nurse must confirm that the client is not allergic to which of the following?
- Gelatin
- Yeast
- Shellfish
- Eggs
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Eggs
The inactivated influenza vaccine is traditionally manufactured using embryonated chicken eggs, meaning trace amounts of egg protein — specifically ovalbumin — may be present in the final vaccine product. Clients with severe egg allergies, particularly those who have experienced anaphylaxis to eggs, require special precautions including administration in a monitored medical setting with emergency equipment available, or use of an egg-free alternative such as the recombinant influenza vaccine. Confirming egg allergy status before administration is a critical pre-vaccination safety check.
Gelatin allergy is relevant to some other vaccines such as MMR and varicella but is not the primary concern for inactivated influenza vaccine. Yeast allergy is relevant to hepatitis B and HPV vaccines. Shellfish allergy is a common misconception — it does not cross-react with iodine-based contrast media or vaccines and is not a contraindication for any standard vaccine.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .