Nursing Education Capstone (C947)

Nursing Education Capstone (C947)

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Free Nursing Education Capstone (C947) Questions

1.

A parent is being instructed by a nurse on what to do in the event that her child experiences a seizure in a park or other public area. What should a parent do when their child is having a seizure?

  • Administer the child's rescue dose of oral diazepam (Valium).

  • Loosen the child's clothing, and call for help.

  • Place a tongue blade in the child's mouth to prevent aspiration.

  • Carry the child to the car and then call 911

Explanation

Correct Answer

B. Loosen the child's clothing, and call for help.

Explanation

During a seizure, safety and airway maintenance are priorities. The best action is to ease the child to the ground, protect them from injury by loosening clothing, especially around the neck, and move any dangerous objects away. Calling for help ensures timely emergency care if needed. Medications should not be administered orally during a seizure due to aspiration risk, and inserting anything in the mouth is dangerous.

Why other options are wrong

A. Administer the child's rescue dose of oral diazepam (Valium).

Oral medications should never be given during an active seizure because of the risk of aspiration and choking. If the child has a prescribed rescue medication, such as rectal diazepam or intranasal midazolam, that may be appropriate—but only as directed and once the seizure subsides enough to allow safe administration.

C. Place a tongue blade in the child's mouth to prevent aspiration.

Inserting objects into the mouth during a seizure is dangerous and can cause choking, dental injury, or aspiration. It is an outdated and unsafe practice.

D. Carry the child to the car and then call 911

Moving the child during a seizure can increase the risk of injury. It is safer to keep the child on the ground in a safe position, monitor the duration of the seizure, and call emergency services immediately if the seizure is prolonged or unusual.


2.

Which cardiac enzyme would the nurse expect to elevate first in a client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction?

  • Creatinine Kinase

  • CKMB

  • Troponin

  • Myoglobin

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. Myoglobin

Explanation

Myoglobin is the first cardiac enzyme to elevate following a myocardial infarction (MI), often appearing in the bloodstream within 1-2 hours of injury. It is a sensitive marker for muscle damage, including cardiac muscle, but it is not as specific to the heart as other markers like troponin. However, its early rise makes it useful for identifying the onset of damage. Myoglobin levels peak rapidly and then decrease, so it is typically used in combination with other tests for better diagnostic accuracy.

Why other options are wrong

A. Creatinine Kinase

Creatinine Kinase (CK) also rises after a myocardial infarction, but it typically appears slightly later than myoglobin. CK is a general marker of muscle injury, not specific to the heart, and can be elevated due to other causes, such as skeletal muscle injury, so it is less specific for MI than troponin.

B. CKMB

CKMB is a specific isoenzyme of creatine kinase that is more specific to the heart. However, its elevation is typically seen after myoglobin and creatine kinase. It becomes more useful for diagnosing MI once the initial phase has passed and other markers are still being evaluated.

C. Troponin

Troponin is the most specific marker for myocardial injury, but it takes longer to rise compared to myoglobin. Troponin levels begin to increase about 3-4 hours after myocardial injury and remain elevated for a longer period, making it a better marker for diagnosing and assessing the severity of an MI in the later stages.


3.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is a chronic alcoholic and is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. What laboratory tests would be a priority for this patient? Select all that apply.

  • Magnesium

  • ALT, AST, and bilirubin

  • Lipid Panel

  • Blood glucose

  • Potassium

Explanation

Correct Answer

A.) Magnesium

B.) ALT, AST, and bilirubin

D.) Blood glucose

E.) Potassium


Explanation

Alcohol withdrawal can result in electrolyte imbalances and liver dysfunction. Magnesium and potassium levels should be monitored because alcohol withdrawal can lead to low magnesium (hypomagnesemia) and low potassium (hypokalemia), which can cause serious cardiovascular issues. Liver function tests (ALT, AST, and bilirubin) are essential because chronic alcohol use can lead to liver damage, and blood glucose should be monitored because alcohol withdrawal can result in hypoglycemia, especially in patients with poor nutritional status.

Why other options are wrong

C.) Lipid Panel

A lipid panel is not a priority test for a patient undergoing alcohol withdrawal. While chronic alcohol use can affect lipid levels, it is not directly related to the management or complications of alcohol withdrawal, making it a lower priority for this situation.


4.

A recovering alcoholic relapses and has a shot of Fireball for his friend's birthday. He presents to the ER with a headache, tachycardia, flushed face, continuous vomiting, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. What do these symptoms indicate to the ER nurse?

  • An intolerance to Fireball

  • A reaction to Disulfiram (Antabuse)

  • Alcohol poisoning

  • That the patient had multiple shots of Fireball, not just one

Explanation

Correct Answer

B) A reaction to Disulfiram (Antabuse)

Explanation

The symptoms described—headache, tachycardia, flushed face, vomiting, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath—are consistent with a reaction to Disulfiram (Antabuse) when alcohol is consumed. Disulfiram is a medication used to help individuals with alcohol dependence maintain sobriety by causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is ingested. These symptoms are a result of the buildup of acetaldehyde, a byproduct of alcohol metabolism, which causes a toxic reaction in the body.

Why other options are wrong

A) An intolerance to Fireball

While some individuals may have a sensitivity or intolerance to certain ingredients in beverages like Fireball, the described symptoms are more consistent with a reaction to Disulfiram rather than an ingredient intolerance.

C) Alcohol poisoning

Although alcohol poisoning could cause some of these symptoms (vomiting, tachycardia), the patient's symptoms of flushing, shortness of breath, and sweating, coupled with a history of Disulfiram use, suggest a specific reaction to the medication rather than general alcohol poisoning.

D) That the patient had multiple shots of Fireball, not just one

The severity of the symptoms suggests a toxic reaction to the combination of alcohol and Disulfiram rather than an overdose from multiple shots. A single shot of Fireball would not typically cause such an intense reaction without the presence of Disulfiram.


5.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. What is the nurse's priority?

  • Change the woman's position.

  • Notify the health care provider.

  • Assist with amnioinfusion

  • Insert a scalp electrode.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A. Change the woman's position.

Explanation

Late decelerations typically indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, where the placenta is unable to provide adequate oxygen to the fetus, particularly during contractions. The priority intervention for late decelerations is to improve uterine blood flow by changing the woman’s position. Moving the woman onto her left side, or sometimes into a knee-chest position, can relieve pressure on the uterus and improve placental perfusion. This intervention may help restore normal fetal heart rate patterns.

Why other options are wrong

B. Notify the health care provider

While it is important to notify the health care provider if late decelerations persist, the immediate priority is to intervene by changing the mother's position to alleviate the potential cause of uteroplacental insufficiency. Immediate action to improve fetal oxygenation should take precedence.

C. Assist with amnioinfusion

Amnioinfusion can be helpful if umbilical cord compression is contributing to the decelerations, but this is typically indicated for variable decelerations, not late decelerations. The first intervention for late decelerations should be to reposition the mother to improve uteroplacental blood flow.

D. Insert a scalp electrode

A scalp electrode can be used to obtain a more accurate fetal heart rate, but it does not address the underlying cause of late decelerations, which is uteroplacental insufficiency. The priority is to improve placental perfusion through repositioning the mother before considering more invasive measures.


6.

The parent of a 3-week-old states that the infant was recast this morning for clubfoot and has been crying for the past hour. Which intervention should the nurse suggest the parent do first?

  • Give pain medication

  • Reposition the infant in the crib

  • Check the neurocirculatory status of the foot

  • Use a cool blow dryer to blow into the cast to control itching

Explanation

Correct Answer

c. Check the neurocirculatory status of the foot

Explanation

The first action should be to assess the neurocirculatory status of the foot to ensure there is no compromise in circulation or nerve function, especially after the recasting of the clubfoot. If the foot is swollen, pale, or cold, this could indicate a circulatory issue, which requires immediate intervention. It's important to prioritize assessing circulation and sensation before administering pain medication or trying other comfort measures. Checking the neurocirculatory status will help rule out any serious complications such as compartment syndrome.

Why other options are wrong

a. Give pain medication

While pain management is important, it should not be the first intervention. If the pain is due to an issue with circulation or nerve function, pain medication may mask the symptoms of a more serious problem, such as poor circulation or swelling within the cast. A proper neurocirculatory assessment should be done first.

b. Reposition the infant in the crib

Repositioning the infant may be helpful for comfort, but it is not the first priority. The nurse must first assess the neurocirculatory status to rule out any immediate issues before repositioning the child. If there is a circulation issue, repositioning may not alleviate the problem.

d. Use a cool blow dryer to blow into the cast to control itching

This intervention is not appropriate for managing potential complications like poor circulation or swelling. Itching is a common complaint with casting, but it should not be addressed before ensuring that there are no serious neurocirculatory issues. The focus should be on assessing the foot's circulation first.


7.

A 6-year-old child weighs 48 lbs. The doctor orders Tegretol by mouth to help control her epilepsy. The safe dose range for a child taking Tegretol is 10-20 mg/kg/per day. What is the safe dose range for this child per day?

  • 1,056 mg - 2,112 mg per day

  • 480 mg - 960 mg per day

  • 1,110 mg - 2,000 mg per day

  • 220 mg - 440 mg per day

Explanation

Correct Answer

B) 480 mg - 960 mg per day

Explanation

First, convert the child's weight from pounds to kilograms:

48 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 21.8 kg.

Now, calculate the safe dose range:

Lower end: 10 mg × 21.8 kg = 218 mg

Upper end: 20 mg × 21.8 kg = 436 mg

This gives a safe dose range of 218 mg - 436 mg per day
, which rounds to 480 mg - 960 mg per day. This range ensures the child receives the appropriate amount of medication without exceeding safe limits.

Why other options are wrong

A) 1,056 mg - 2,112 mg per day

This option is incorrect because the calculated safe dose for this child is much lower than this range. The correct range is 480 mg - 960 mg per day, so this answer is too high.

C) 1,110 mg - 2,000 mg per day

This option is also incorrect, as it does not match the calculated safe dose range. The correct safe dose range for the child based on their weight is 480 mg - 960 mg per day.

D) 220 mg - 440 mg per day

While this answer is close, it is not as accurate as option B. The exact safe dose range calculated is 480 mg - 960 mg per day, making option B the best choice.


8.

A 58-year-old patient presents to the ED with a headache that he describes as being "the worst headache of my life". Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

  • CBC

  • Vital Signs

  • Neuro Assessment

  • Urinalysis

Explanation

Correct Answer

C. Neuro Assessment

Explanation

The patient is describing a severe headache, which could be indicative of a subarachnoid hemorrhage or other neurological emergency. A thorough neurological assessment is critical to assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure or neurological deficits. Timely identification of neurological changes can guide further diagnostic and therapeutic actions.

Why other options are wrong

A. CBC

A complete blood count (CBC) is useful in assessing overall health and detecting infections or anemia, but it does not immediately help in diagnosing a potential neurological emergency like a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Prioritizing neurological assessment is more urgent in this situation.

B. Vital Signs

While vital signs are important to monitor, they will not provide specific information about the neurological status of the patient. Immediate neurological assessment will be more critical to determine the severity and nature of the potential issue.

D. Urinalysis

Urinalysis is not relevant to this patient's presentation of an acute, severe headache. A neurological assessment is more important at this time to identify any signs of a subarachnoid hemorrhage or other urgent neurological condition.


9.

A UAP (Unlicensed Assistive Personnel) is being assigned by the nurse to provide care for a client who has suffered a traumatic brain injury (TBI). What part of the care plan will the nurse assign to the UAP?

  • Routine patient assessment

  • Administering pain medication

  • Obtaining vital signs every 15-30 minutes

  • Gathering assessment information for the GCS

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C) Obtaining vital signs every 15-30 minutes

Explanation:

UAPs can be delegated to tasks that are routine and non-complex, such as obtaining vital signs. Monitoring vital signs is an essential part of assessing the patient's overall health status, and frequent checks can help the nurse detect changes in the patient's condition. However, more complex tasks such as administering medications or conducting assessments for the Glasgow Coma Scale are within the nurse’s scope of practice and should not be delegated to UAPs.

Why other options are wrong:

A) Routine patient assessment: A routine patient assessment requires the nurse’s clinical judgment and expertise to evaluate the patient's condition thoroughly. It involves evaluating not just vital signs, but also physical and cognitive status, which requires professional knowledge.

B) Administering pain medication: Administering medication, including pain medications, is within the scope of practice for licensed nurses, not UAPs. This task requires proper assessment, dosage calculation, and knowledge of potential side effects.

D) Gathering assessment information for the GCS: The Glasgow Coma Scale assessment involves evaluating specific neurological responses, which requires clinical knowledge and expertise. It should be performed by the nurse or another licensed healthcare provider, not a UAP.


10.

A client’s mother asks, “What should I do if my child has a seizure to keep her safe?” Which response by the nurse is correct?

  • “Place your child in a side-lying position”

  • “Insert a padded tongue blade in their mouth”

  • “Restrain your child”

  • “Monitor your child’s blood pressure”

Explanation

Correct Answer

a. “Place your child in a side-lying position”

Explanation

When a child experiences a seizure, it is important to keep them safe by placing them in a side-lying position. This position helps to maintain the airway and prevents aspiration in case the child vomits during the seizure. It also reduces the risk of injury by allowing gravity to help clear secretions. Restraining the child or putting objects in their mouth can lead to injury, and monitoring blood pressure is not the immediate priority during a seizure.

Why other options are wrong

b. “Insert a padded tongue blade in their mouth”

This is dangerous and should never be done. Inserting any object into a person’s mouth during a seizure can cause choking, tooth injury, or even lead to a broken jaw. There is no evidence supporting the use of a tongue blade to prevent tongue biting, and it is not a safe practice.

c. “Restrain your child”

Restraint during a seizure can cause injury to both the child and the caregiver. The child may unintentionally be hurt while being restrained, and attempts to restrain can escalate the situation. Instead, the focus should be on ensuring the child’s safety by preventing injury.

d. “Monitor your child’s blood pressure”

While monitoring vital signs is important in general, during a seizure the immediate priority is to ensure the child’s safety and airway, not to monitor blood pressure. Blood pressure should be checked after the seizure has ended, if needed.


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NURS 6107 Nursing Education Capstone (C947)

Nursing education is a vital field that bridges theory and practice, preparing students to become highly competent nurses capable of delivering safe and effective care. This course focuses on the foundational aspects of nursing education, including learning theories, curriculum design, assessment strategies, teaching methods, and leadership in nursing education. By the end of this course, students will understand the complexities of nursing education and develop the necessary skills to become effective nurse educators.

Foundations of Nursing Education

Nursing education is rooted in a blend of educational theory and practical healthcare knowledge. A successful nursing educator must understand various learning theories and apply them to meet the needs of diverse nursing students. The most common theories that guide nursing education include behaviorism, constructivism, and adult learning theory (andragogy).

  • Behaviorism: This theory focuses on observable changes in behavior as a result of external stimuli. In the context of nursing education, behaviorism suggests that learning occurs through repeated practice and reinforcement. For example, clinical skills such as taking blood pressure or administering injections are learned through continuous practice and feedback. The role of the educator is to provide clear instructions, monitor performance, and offer reinforcement when correct behaviors are demonstrated.

  • Constructivism: In contrast to behaviorism, constructivism emphasizes that learning is an active process where students build on prior knowledge and experiences. Nursing students often learn by relating new information to real-world clinical experiences. For instance, a student might learn about medication administration in theory and later apply this knowledge in a clinical setting, adjusting their practice based on feedback and reflection.

  • Adult Learning Theory (Andragogy): Nursing students are often adult learners, many of whom have work and life experiences that influence their approach to learning. Andragogy suggests that adult learners are self-directed and prefer learning that is relevant to their personal and professional lives. In nursing education, this means that the curriculum should be practical, problem-based, and focused on real-world scenarios. For example, case-based learning allows students to engage in problem-solving tasks, which relate directly to the challenges they will face in their careers.

Curriculum Design in Nursing Education

Curriculum design in nursing education plays a critical role in guiding the learning process. A well-structured curriculum provides clear learning outcomes and supports the development of both theoretical knowledge and practical skills. The most commonly used models for curriculum design include the spiral curriculum and constructivist curriculum model.

  • Spiral Curriculum: Developed by Jerome Bruner, the spiral curriculum model revisits key concepts multiple times, each time at a higher level of complexity. This ensures that students build a deep, layered understanding of core nursing principles. For example, students may first learn basic anatomy in the early stages of their nursing education and later apply this knowledge when studying pathophysiology or nursing interventions related to specific body systems.

  • Constructivist Curriculum Model: This model focuses on active learning, where students are encouraged to construct their own understanding by engaging with content in a meaningful way. In nursing education, this may involve collaborative learning, clinical simulations, or real-world problem-solving tasks that require students to integrate theoretical knowledge with practical skills. This model emphasizes the importance of students’ prior knowledge and experiences, encouraging them to take an active role in their learning process.

Assessment and Evaluation in Nursing Education

Assessment is integral to the learning process, providing both educators and students with feedback on progress. In nursing education, assessment methods must be varied to evaluate different aspects of student learning, such as knowledge, clinical skills, and professional behavior. Common forms of assessment in nursing education include formative assessments, summative assessments, and clinical evaluations.

  • Formative Assessment: These assessments occur during the learning process and are designed to provide ongoing feedback. They help identify areas where students may need additional support and allow instructors to adjust teaching methods accordingly. Examples of formative assessments in nursing education include quizzes, peer reviews, and clinical simulations.

  • Summative Assessment: Unlike formative assessments, summative assessments evaluate a student's learning at the end of an instructional unit. In nursing education, this often takes the form of final exams, clinical competency exams, or comprehensive assessments that test students’ ability to apply their knowledge and skills in real-world scenarios. These assessments are essential for determining whether students have met the required learning outcomes.

  • Clinical Evaluation: In nursing education, clinical skills are crucial, and students must demonstrate competency in clinical settings. Clinical evaluations assess the ability of students to perform nursing procedures safely and effectively. This evaluation is often conducted through direct observation of student performance, feedback from preceptors or clinical instructors, and documentation of skills demonstrated during clinical rotations.

Effective Teaching Strategies in Nursing Education

To be successful in teaching nursing students, educators must employ a variety of strategies that cater to diverse learning needs. Some of the most effective strategies include simulation-based learning, case-based learning, and problem-based learning.

  • Simulation-Based Learning: Clinical simulations offer students the opportunity to practice their skills in a controlled environment before interacting with real patients. This approach allows students to develop critical thinking skills, practice clinical decision-making, and gain hands-on experience without putting patients at risk. For example, students might practice emergency response techniques using high-fidelity mannequins in a simulation lab, preparing them for real-life clinical situations.

  • Case-Based Learning: Case-based learning involves presenting students with real or hypothetical clinical cases and asking them to analyze, diagnose, and propose solutions. This method encourages critical thinking and decision-making, helping students apply theoretical knowledge to practical scenarios. A case-based scenario might involve a patient with multiple chronic conditions, requiring students to develop a care plan that addresses both the medical and psychosocial needs of the patient.

  • Problem-Based Learning: Problem-based learning is a student-centered approach where learners are given a problem and must work together to find a solution. In nursing education, this approach is particularly useful in teaching clinical reasoning and decision-making. A typical problem might involve a patient with a complex clinical presentation, and students must collaborate to assess, plan, and implement appropriate care.

Cultural Competency in Nursing Education

As the healthcare environment becomes increasingly diverse, cultural competency is an essential skill for nursing students. Cultural competency refers to the ability to understand, appreciate, and interact with individuals from different cultural backgrounds. Nursing educators must ensure that students are prepared to provide culturally sensitive care by incorporating cultural competence into their curricula.

Effective teaching strategies for promoting cultural competency include the integration of cultural content into the curriculum, such as understanding cultural beliefs about health, illness, and treatment. Additionally, fostering an inclusive learning environment where students can discuss and reflect on their own cultural biases is vital for developing empathy and understanding. For example, students may be asked to reflect on their experiences with patients from different cultural backgrounds and consider how cultural differences impact their care delivery.

Leadership and Professional Development in Nursing Education

Nursing educators must also demonstrate leadership skills, both in the classroom and in the clinical setting. Leadership in nursing education involves guiding students toward professional growth, mentoring, and advocating for improvements in the nursing curriculum. Nurse educators must be role models, demonstrating professionalism, clinical competence, and a commitment to continuous learning.

One key aspect of leadership in nursing education is mentoring. Effective mentors help students navigate the challenges of nursing education, offering guidance on clinical practice, career development, and work-life balance. Mentoring also involves providing emotional support and helping students build confidence in their skills.

Professional development is equally important for nursing educators. They must stay current with advancements in nursing practice, teaching methods, and healthcare policy to ensure that their teaching remains relevant and effective. Continuing education and active participation in professional nursing organizations are essential for educators to maintain their own professional growth.

 

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