NUR256 Mental Health Theory and Application Exam 4
Access The Exact Questions for NUR256 Mental Health Theory and Application Exam 4
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for NUR256 Mental Health Theory and Application Exam 4 on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Ace Your Test with NUR256 Mental Health Theory and Application Exam 4 Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set
Free NUR256 Mental Health Theory and Application Exam 4 Questions
Which assessment finding for a client diagnosed with an eating disorder meets criteria for hospitalization?
Normal Reference Ranges: Potassium: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L
-
Serum potassium 3.4 mEq/L
-
Pulse rate 58 beats/min
-
Systolic blood pressure 62 mmHg
-
Urine output 40 mL/hr
Explanation
Correct Answer:
(C) Systolic blood pressure 62 mmHg. Severe hypotension (systolic BP below approximately 70–80 mmHg or with hemodynamic instability) is a life-threatening finding indicating cardiovascular compromise from starvation, and it meets criteria for immediate hospitalization to prevent cardiac collapse.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Serum potassium 3.4 mEq/L. This value is only very slightly below the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and, while it should be monitored, does not by itself represent the critical, immediately life-threatening abnormality that mandates hospitalization.
B. Pulse rate 58 beats/min. Mild bradycardia is common in eating disorders due to the body's adaptive response to malnutrition; hospitalization criteria typically require more severe bradycardia (e.g., below 40–50 beats/min).
D. Urine output 40 mL/hr. A urine output of 40 mL/hr is within an acceptable range (generally at or above 30 mL/hr is considered adequate), so this finding does not indicate a crisis requiring hospitalization.
A 12-year-old client with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) started methylphenidate therapy two months ago. The parents report that their child has been eating significantly less and has lost weight. What is the best explanation for this change?
A. Methylphenidate increases metabolic rate, causing rapid calorie burn and weight loss.
B. The medication causes an increase in physical activity, which leads to weight loss.
C. Stimulant medications commonly suppress appetite, leading to reduced food intake.
D. Children with ADHD naturally have lower body weight, so this is an expected finding.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Stimulant medications commonly suppress appetite, leading to reduced food intake. Appetite suppression is a well-documented and common side effect of stimulant medications like methylphenidate, directly explaining the decreased food intake and associated weight loss reported by the parents.
A. Methylphenidate increases metabolic rate, causing rapid calorie burn and weight loss. While stimulants can have mild metabolic effects, the primary and most clinically significant mechanism behind weight loss in these clients is appetite suppression, not a substantial increase in metabolic rate.
B. The medication causes an increase in physical activity, which leads to weight loss. Methylphenidate is used to help manage hyperactivity, not increase overall physical activity or exercise; this is not the primary mechanism for the weight change.
D. Children with ADHD naturally have lower body weight, so this is an expected finding. This is inaccurate and dismisses a clinically relevant medication side effect that began after starting the medication, rather than being an inherent trait of ADHD itself.
-
Methylphenidate increases metabolic rate, causing rapid calorie burn and weight loss.
-
The medication causes an increase in physical activity, which leads to weight loss.
-
Stimulant medications commonly suppress appetite, leading to reduced food intake.
-
Children with ADHD naturally have lower body weight, so this is an expected finding.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
(C) Stimulant medications commonly suppress appetite, leading to reduced food intake. Appetite suppression is a well-documented and common side effect of stimulant medications like methylphenidate, directly explaining the decreased food intake and associated weight loss reported by the parents.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Methylphenidate increases metabolic rate, causing rapid calorie burn and weight loss. While stimulants can have mild metabolic effects, the primary and most clinically significant mechanism behind weight loss in these clients is appetite suppression, not a substantial increase in metabolic rate.
B. The medication causes an increase in physical activity, which leads to weight loss. Methylphenidate is used to help manage hyperactivity, not increase overall physical activity or exercise; this is not the primary mechanism for the weight change.
D. Children with ADHD naturally have lower body weight, so this is an expected finding. This is inaccurate and dismisses a clinically relevant medication side effect that began after starting the medication, rather than being an inherent trait of ADHD itself.
The nurse admits a client with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following assessment data should the nurse expect to find in this client's health history? (Select all that apply.)
-
Distorted body image
-
Depression and anxiety
-
History of extreme calorie restriction
-
BMI greater than 20
-
Increased body temperature
Explanation
Anorexia nervosa is characterized diagnostically by a distorted perception of body weight/shape (body image disturbance) and behaviors of restrictive eating aimed at preventing weight gain, and it commonly co-occurs with mood and anxiety disorders, making these three findings expected in the client's history.
Why the other options are incorrect:
BMI greater than 20 — This is incorrect; anorexia nervosa is defined by a significantly low body weight, typically with a BMI well below 18.5, not above 20.
Increased body temperature — This is incorrect; malnutrition and loss of insulating body fat in anorexia nervosa typically cause hypothermia (low body temperature), not an increase.
The nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which nursing intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
-
Have the client weigh themselves daily and report the weight to nursing staff.
-
Assist the client in maintaining their exercise regimen.
-
Encourage the client to sit alone in the dining room during meals.
-
Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
(D) Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings. Encouraging the client to express their emotions supports healthy coping mechanisms and helps address the underlying psychological issues contributing to the eating disorder, which is a core component of therapeutic nursing care for anorexia nervosa.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Have the client weigh themselves daily and report the weight to nursing staff. Self-weighing should be avoided, as it can reinforce an unhealthy preoccupation with weight; weighing should be performed by staff under controlled conditions instead.
B. Assist the client in maintaining their exercise regimen. Excessive exercise is often part of the pathological behavior pattern in anorexia nervosa and should be restricted, not supported, especially during acute treatment.
C. Encourage the client to sit alone in the dining room during meals. Clients should be supervised during meals, ideally with staff or in a group setting, to monitor intake and prevent food avoidance or disposal, not left alone.
A client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder (Cluster A) accuses the nursing staff of plotting against them. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
-
Tell the client there is no reason to be afraid because everyone on staff likes them.
-
Confront the client's delusional beliefs to promote reality testing.
-
Collaborate with the client to develop a plan to identify trustworthy individuals.
-
Avoid discussing the client's suspicions to prevent escalating paranoia.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
C
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Tell the client there is no reason to be afraid because everyone on staff likes them. This dismisses the client's feelings and is an overly simplistic reassurance that is unlikely to be believed by a client with pervasive distrust, potentially damaging rapport.
B. Confront the client's delusional beliefs to promote reality testing. Direct confrontation can increase the client's defensiveness and paranoia rather than reduce it, damaging the therapeutic relationship.
D. Avoid discussing the client's suspicions to prevent escalating paranoia. Avoiding the topic entirely does not therapeutically address the client's concerns and misses an opportunity to build trust and coping strategies.
The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
Normal Reference Ranges: Potassium 3.5–5.0 mEq/L
-
Slightly delayed capillary refill
-
Serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L
-
Complaints of cold intolerance
-
Mildly dry skin and brittle nails
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Slightly delayed capillary refill. This is a mild finding related to poor perfusion from malnutrition but is not an acute, life-threatening emergency.
C. Complaints of cold intolerance. This is an expected, chronic finding related to loss of body fat and decreased metabolic rate in anorexia nervosa, not an emergent finding.
D. Mildly dry skin and brittle nails. These are common chronic findings related to malnutrition but do not represent an immediate physiological threat.
The nurse assesses a school-aged child with Autism Spectrum Disorder. Which findings are consistent with this diagnosis?
-
Inability to maintain eye contact, repetitive actions and strict routines
-
Has mild temper tantrums that are controllable by parents
-
Is fidgety, an inability to sit still, playing loudly and talking excessively
-
A deficit that occurred during the development period of infancy
Explanation
Correct Answer:
(A) Inability to maintain eye contact, repetitive actions and strict routines. These findings — impaired eye contact, repetitive behaviors (stereotypies), and rigid adherence to routines — represent the core diagnostic features of Autism Spectrum Disorder as defined by persistent deficits in social communication and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Has mild temper tantrums that are controllable by parents. This is a nonspecific, mild behavioral finding common in typical childhood development and is not a defining characteristic of ASD.
C. Is fidgety, an inability to sit still, playing loudly and talking excessively. These findings are more characteristic of ADHD (hyperactivity/impulsivity) rather than the core social communication and repetitive behavior deficits that define ASD.
D. A deficit that occurred during the development period of infancy. This is vague and nonspecific; ASD diagnostic criteria require symptoms present in the early developmental period, but this option alone does not describe the actual core characteristic findings needed to identify ASD.
The nurse is planning care for a client with antisocial personality disorder. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
-
Restrict their participation in the therapeutic milieu as they will likely ignore any peer feedback.
-
Arrange for the client to receive a long-term prescription for benzodiazepines to treat anxiety.
-
Encourage the client to verbalize any hostile feelings they have.
-
Monitor the client for suicidal ideations and implement suicide precautions.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
(C) Encourage the client to verbalize any hostile feelings they have. Encouraging verbalization of hostile feelings, rather than acting them out, helps the client develop healthier coping mechanisms and impulse control, which is an appropriate therapeutic intervention for antisocial personality disorder.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Restrict their participation in the therapeutic milieu as they will likely ignore any peer feedback. Milieu therapy and peer feedback are valuable therapeutic tools for clients with antisocial personality disorder and should be encouraged, not restricted.
B. Arrange for the client to receive a long-term prescription for benzodiazepines to treat anxiety. Benzodiazepines carry a high risk of misuse and dependency and are generally avoided in clients with antisocial personality disorder due to impulsivity and substance misuse risk.
D. Monitor the client for suicidal ideations and implement suicide precautions. While safety monitoring is always a baseline nursing consideration, this is not a finding or need specifically indicated by antisocial personality disorder, which is not typically characterized by suicidal ideation the way some other conditions are.
The nurse is caring for a child admitted for an unrelated medical condition who also has a diagnosis of ADHD. Based on the assessment findings, which behavior would indicate the need for PRN medication?
Chart: Liam Carter, Age 9; Scheduled: Lisdexamfetamine 20 mg PO at 0800; PRN: Guanfacine 1 mg PO as needed for increased agitation and difficulty calming down; Current time: 1600
-
Client asks when dinner will be served and says they are hungry.
-
Client is repeatedly leaving the hospital room and becoming argumentative with staff.
-
Client has reports of mild thirst and requests water.
-
Client is quietly playing with a toy but occasionally fidgets.
Explanation
Correct Answer:
(B) Client is repeatedly leaving the hospital room and becoming argumentative with staff. This behavior directly reflects increased agitation and difficulty calming down, which is exactly the indication specified for the PRN guanfacine order, making it appropriate to administer the medication at this time.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Client asks when dinner will be served and says they are hungry. This is a normal, expected behavior unrelated to agitation and does not indicate a need for PRN medication.
C. Client has reports of mild thirst and requests water. This is a benign physical complaint unrelated to agitation or difficulty calming down and does not warrant the PRN medication.
D. Client is quietly playing with a toy but occasionally fidgets. Mild, occasional fidgeting while quietly engaged in play is not indicative of significant agitation or an inability to calm down, so it does not meet the threshold for PRN administration.
The nurse is conducting an assessment on a client suspected of having Dependent Personality Disorder (Cluster C). Which findings support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
-
Clingy and submissive in relationships
-
Avoids conflict for fear of losing support from others
-
Feels helpless when alone and seeks immediate replacement relationships
-
Difficulty initiating projects due to lack of self-confidence
-
Frequently insists on making independent life decisions
Explanation
Dependent Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive, excessive need to be taken care of, leading to clingy, submissive behavior and fear of separation. Clients avoid expressing disagreement for fear of losing support, feel helpless and urgently seek new relationships when a close relationship ends, and lack the self-confidence to initiate tasks or projects independently — all of these findings are hallmark features of the disorder.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Frequently insists on making independent life decisions — This is incorrect and reflects the opposite of dependent personality disorder; these clients typically struggle to make everyday decisions without excessive reassurance and advice from others, rather than insisting on independence.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .