ATI Custom NUR209 Final Assessment Summer 1
Access The Exact Questions for ATI Custom NUR209 Final Assessment Summer 1
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for ATI Custom NUR209 Final Assessment Summer 1 on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Ace Your Test with ATI Custom NUR209 Final Assessment Summer 1 Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set
Free ATI Custom NUR209 Final Assessment Summer 1 Questions
Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to an infant or child in heart failure? (Select All that Apply.)
-
Wheezes or rales
-
Edema in feet and legs
-
Tires easily, gets fatigued during feedings
-
Clear breath sounds
-
Tachypnea
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Wheezes or rales, (B) Edema in feet and legs, (C) Tires easily, gets fatigued during feedings, (E) Tachypnea
In pediatric heart failure, the heart cannot pump effectively, leading to fluid backup into the lungs causing wheezes or rales, and into the peripheral tissues causing dependent edema. Infants and children compensate by working harder to breathe, resulting in tachypnea. Poor cardiac output also means inadequate perfusion during activity, so infants tire quickly and struggle to complete feedings, which is a hallmark sign of heart failure in this age group.
Why the other options are incorrect:
D. Clear breath sounds Clear breath sounds indicate normal lung fields without fluid accumulation. In heart failure, pulmonary congestion typically produces abnormal breath sounds such as crackles or wheezes, making clear breath sounds an expected finding in a healthy child, not one in heart failure.
Which nursing interventions are appropriate while caring for a newborn whose mother was addicted to heroin during the pregnancy? (Select All that Apply.)
-
Offer the newborn a pacifier
-
Observe the newborn in a well-lit nursery
-
Maintain low stimulation environment
-
Swaddle newborn with legs flexed
-
Administer oral glucose for comfort
-
Feed the infant half strength formula
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Offer the newborn a pacifier, (C) Maintain low stimulation environment, (D) Swaddle newborn with legs flexed, (E) Administer oral glucose for comfort
Newborns exposed to heroin in utero are at high risk for neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). A pacifier provides non-nutritive sucking which helps soothe the irritable neonate and reduces withdrawal symptoms. A low stimulation environment minimizes sensory overload, which these infants are extremely sensitive to. Swaddling with legs flexed mimics the intrauterine position and provides comfort and containment to the jittery newborn. Oral glucose may be used as a comfort measure to help calm the infant during procedures and periods of distress.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Observe the newborn in a well-lit nursery Bright lighting increases stimulation and can worsen the irritability and hyperexcitability associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome. These infants require a dim, quiet environment.
F. Feed the infant half strength formula Newborns with NAS typically require increased caloric intake due to the high energy demands of withdrawal symptoms such as tremors and excessive crying. Half strength formula would be nutritionally inadequate and is not appropriate for this population.
A nurse is providing caregiver education for a child who has Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy. Which of the following statements by the caregiver indicates an understanding of the teaching?
-
"My child should avoid all social and school activities to conserve energy."
-
"I will monitor my child for respiratory symptoms and signs of infection."
-
"Assistive devices should only be used during severe weakness."
-
"Range of motion exercises should be avoided to prevent muscle damage."
Explanation
Children with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy are at increased risk for respiratory complications due to progressive muscle weakness affecting the respiratory muscles, so monitoring for respiratory symptoms and infection is essential for early identification and intervention.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. "My child should avoid all social and school activities to conserve energy." — Children with DMD should be encouraged to participate in school and social activities to the extent possible to support quality of life and normal development, not avoid them entirely.
C. "Assistive devices should only be used during severe weakness." — Assistive devices should be introduced proactively as needed throughout disease progression, not delayed until severe weakness occurs, to help maintain function and independence.
D. "Range of motion exercises should be avoided to prevent muscle damage." — Range of motion exercises are actually recommended to help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures, which are common complications in DMD.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor, undergoing external fetal monitoring, and receiving IV fluid. The nurse observes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate on the monitor strip. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of this finding?
-
Variable decelerations are related to fetal head compression.
-
Variable decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency.
-
Variable decelerations are a result of the administration of IV narcotic analgesics.
-
Variable decelerations are due to umbilical cord compression.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Variable decelerations are due to umbilical cord compression.
Variable decelerations on a fetal heart rate monitor are characteristically caused by umbilical cord compression, which produces an abrupt, variable-shaped drop in fetal heart rate that does not have a consistent relationship to uterine contractions.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Variable decelerations are related to fetal head compression. — Fetal head compression causes early decelerations, which have a uniform, mirror-image shape that coincides with uterine contractions, not variable decelerations.
B. Variable decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. — Uteroplacental insufficiency causes late decelerations, which occur after the peak of a contraction, not variable decelerations.
C. Variable decelerations are a result of the administration of IV narcotic analgesics. — Narcotic analgesics can cause decreased fetal heart rate variability, but this is not the mechanism behind variable decelerations, which are specifically linked to cord compression.
A nurse is preparing to administer routine medications to a newborn within 2 hours of birth. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer to help prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?
-
Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
-
Vitamin K (phytonadione) IM
-
Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)
-
Hepatitis B vaccine
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Vitamin K (phytonadione) IM
Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so an intramuscular injection of vitamin K is administered shortly after birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn (vitamin K deficiency bleeding).
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment — This medication is given to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum (eye infections), not to prevent bleeding disorders.
C. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) — This is given to newborns of hepatitis B-positive mothers to provide passive immunity against hepatitis B, unrelated to clotting or hemorrhagic disease prevention.
D. Hepatitis B vaccine — This vaccine protects against hepatitis B infection and has no role in preventing hemorrhagic disease of the newborn.
The nurse educates the parents on actions to prevent sudden infant death syndrome. Which observation indicates the teaching has been effective?
-
The newborn is co-sleeping in the caregiver's bed
-
Newborn is placed in bassinet on the back
-
Newborn is placed in bassinet with blanket draped over them
-
Mother removes pacifier from the newborn's mouth
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Newborn is placed in bassinet on the back
Placing the newborn on their back to sleep in a separate, safe sleep surface such as a bassinet is a key evidence-based recommendation for reducing the risk of SIDS.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. The newborn is co-sleeping in the caregiver's bed — Co-sleeping is a significant risk factor for SIDS and suffocation and should be avoided; this observation would indicate a need for further teaching.
C. Newborn is placed in bassinet with blanket draped over them — Loose blankets and soft bedding materials in the sleep area increase the risk of suffocation and SIDS, so this practice is unsafe.
D. Mother removes pacifier from the newborn's mouth — Pacifier use during sleep is actually associated with a reduced risk of SIDS, so removing it would not indicate effective teaching; keeping it in during sleep is recommended.
A nurse is caring for a newborn and calculating the Apgar score. At 1 min after delivery, the following findings are noted: heart rate of 120/min; slow, weak cry; some flexion of extremities; grimace in response to suctioning of the nares; body pink in color with blue extremities. Calculate the newborn's Apgar score.
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
7 points
Apgar scoring breakdown: Heart rate >100/min = 2 points; slow, weak cry (respiratory effort) = 1 point; some flexion of extremities (muscle tone) = 1 point; grimace in response to stimulation (reflex irritability) = 1 point; body pink with blue extremities, i.e., acrocyanosis (color) = 1 point. Total = 2+1+1+1+1 = 7 points.
A nurse is providing care for an infant who has heart failure related to a congenital heart defect. Which nursing intervention is contraindicated?
-
Cluster nursing care activities to allow for rest periods.
-
Allow feedings to last longer than 45 minutes to ensure adequate intake.
-
Administer prescribed cardiac medications as scheduled.
-
Fortify formula or provide high-calorie feedings as prescribed.
Explanation
Infants with heart failure have limited energy reserves, and prolonged feedings exceeding 30 minutes actually increase caloric expenditure and fatigue, worsening the workload on the heart, so feedings should be kept short and efficient rather than extended.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Cluster nursing care activities to allow for rest periods. — This is an appropriate intervention that conserves the infant's energy by minimizing interruptions and allowing for adequate rest.
C. Administer prescribed cardiac medications as scheduled. — This is a necessary and appropriate intervention to manage the underlying heart failure and congenital defect.
D. Fortify formula or provide high-calorie feedings as prescribed. — This is an appropriate intervention to meet the increased caloric needs of an infant with heart failure while minimizing volume and feeding effort.
A nurse in the labor and delivery unit is reviewing the labor progress of four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being closest to delivery?
-
A client who is 4 cm dilated, 70% effaced, and at -1 station
-
A client who is 2 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and at -2 station
-
A client who is 9 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and at +1 station
-
A client who is 6 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and at 0 station
Explanation
This client has the most advanced cervical dilation (9 cm, nearing complete dilation of 10 cm), complete effacement (100%), and the fetus is at a positive station (+1, below the ischial spines), all indicating labor is most advanced and delivery is imminent.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. A client who is 4 cm dilated, 70% effaced, and at -1 station — This client is in the early active phase of labor with less dilation, effacement, and a higher (negative) fetal station, indicating labor is far less advanced.
B. A client who is 2 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and at -2 station — This client is in early labor with minimal dilation, less effacement, and the fetus at a higher station, indicating this client is the furthest from delivery.
D. A client who is 6 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and at 0 station — While this client is progressing in labor, the findings show less advancement than the client with 9 cm dilation, 100% effacement, and +1 station.
A nurse is assessing a pregnant client who is experiencing third trimester vaginal bleeding. For each finding, click to specify whether the finding is more consistent with Placenta Previa or Placental Abruption.
Assessment Finding | Placenta Previa | Placental Abruption
- Bright red vaginal bleeding — Placenta Previa
- Sudden severe abdominal pain — Placental Abruption
- Dark red vaginal bleeding — Placental Abruption
- Rigid, board like abdomen — Placental Abruption
- Fetal distress — Placental Abruption
- Painless vaginal bleeding — Placenta Previa
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
Bright red vaginal bleeding (Placenta Previa); Sudden severe abdominal pain (Placental Abruption); Dark red vaginal bleeding (Placental Abruption); Rigid, board like abdomen (Placental Abruption); Fetal distress (Placental Abruption); Painless vaginal bleeding (Placenta Previa)
Why the other options are incorrect:
Placenta previa does not typically cause abdominal pain, a rigid abdomen, or fetal distress in its classic presentation, as the bleeding occurs without uterine irritability.
Placental abruption does not present with painless bleeding; the abrupt separation causes significant pain and uterine tenderness/rigidity due to bleeding into the myometrium.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .