HESI Adult Health 2025
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Free HESI Adult Health 2025 Questions
The nurse has determined that a client with trigeminal neuralgia has the nursing problem, “Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements.” Which cause is most likely contributing to the problem?
- A. Pain when eating.
- B. Nausea.
- C. Altered taste sensation.
- D. Fatigue.
Explanation
A. Pain when eating
Trigeminal neuralgia causes sudden, intense, stabbing facial pain triggered by activities such as chewing, talking, brushing teeth, touching the face, or even exposure to wind. Because chewing often provokes severe pain, clients commonly avoid eating, which quickly leads to insufficient caloric intake and weight loss. Pain during meals is the primary and most direct contributor to imbalanced nutrition in trigeminal neuralgia.
A middle-aged adult client reports a sudden onset of seeing flashing lights and floating spots. Which is the best nursing action?
- A Initiate a referral for ophthalmic evaluation as soon as possible.
- B Advise the client to maintain normal activities, but avoid contact sports until the spots resolve.
- C Tell the client to apply warm, moist compresses and notify the healthcare provider (HCP) if there is no improvement.
- D Instruct the client to rest, and report to the emergency department (ED) if eye pain develops.
Explanation
A. Initiate a referral for ophthalmic evaluation as soon as possible
A sudden onset of flashing lights and floating spots is a classic warning sign of retinal detachment or a retinal tear. This is an ophthalmic emergency because delayed diagnosis and treatment can lead to permanent vision loss. Immediate evaluation—typically the same day—is required so that retinal repair can be performed before detachment progresses. Early intervention significantly improves outcomes.
The nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client with symptoms related to urethritis. Which collection method should the nurse implement?
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A 24-hour specimen.
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Any specimen voided after drinking adequate fluids.
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First voided specimen in the morning.
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A clean catch specimen.
Explanation
The Correct Answer is: D. A clean catch specimen
Explanation
For suspected urethritis, a clean catch midstream urine specimen is required because it minimizes contamination from surrounding genital tissues and provides the most accurate sample for detecting bacteria, white blood cells, or other indicators of infection. This method ensures diagnostic accuracy for urinary tract infections and urethritis.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. A 24-hour specimen
A 24-hour collection is used for kidney function studies (e.g., creatinine clearance, proteinuria), not for detecting infection in urethritis.
B. Any specimen voided after drinking adequate fluids
This method risks contamination and dilution, making it less reliable for detecting infection. It is not the recommended approach for urethritis.
C. First voided specimen in the morning
First morning specimens are more concentrated and useful for pregnancy tests or some metabolic studies but are not specific for diagnosing urethritis.
An adult male client is admitted to the emergency department (ED) while vomiting dark brown, foul-smelling emesis. He reports having a surgical repair of a recurrent inguinal hernia a week ago and is troubled by intense abdominal pain. After finding that his bowel sounds are hyperactive, which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A Place an indwelling urinary catheter and attach a bedside drainage unit.
- B Give a prescribed analgesic for temperature above 101°F (38.3°C) orally.
- C Insert a nasogastric tube (NGT) and attach to low intermittent suction (LIS).
- D Send the client to x-ray for a flat plate of the abdomen.
Explanation
C. Insert a nasogastric tube (NGT) and attach to low intermittent suction (LIS)
Dark brown, foul-smelling emesis is strongly suggestive of a bowel obstruction, especially post-hernia repair. Hyperactive bowel sounds also support this diagnosis. The priority intervention is gastric decompression with an NGT. This reduces vomiting, prevents aspiration, decreases abdominal distention, and helps relieve pressure proximal to the obstruction. It is the most urgent treatment to stabilize the client.
The nurse assesses an adult client 24 hours following abdominal surgery and finds the client's blood pressure is 98/40 mm Hg. The client is tachycardic, restless, and irritable. Which action should the nurse perform first?
- A Check under the back for evidence of bleeding.
- B Ensure the IV solution is infusing at the prescribed rate.
- C Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
- D Listen to lung sounds.
Explanation
A. Check under the back for evidence of bleeding
The client’s symptoms—hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, and irritability—are classic early signs of postoperative hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Abdominal surgical patients can bleed into the incision site or into the bed linens without obvious external signs. The first nursing action is to quickly assess for active bleeding under the back and around the surgical site. Identifying ongoing blood loss is critical before taking further steps, because it determines urgency and guides interventions.
An older adult client, at risk for osteoporosis, reports taking a multivitamin daily. In developing a teaching plan for the client, which follow up information should the nurse obtain?
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Usual activity after taking the multivitamin.
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What time of day the multivitamin is taken.
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If the multivitamin is taken with a meal or snack.
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The amount of calcium in the multivitamin.
Explanation
The Correct Answer is: D. The amount of calcium in the multivitamin
Explanation
Osteoporosis is strongly linked to inadequate calcium intake. While many multivitamins contain some calcium, the amount is often insufficient to meet the daily requirement for older adults (1,200 mg/day). Determining the calcium content allows the nurse to identify if the client needs additional supplementation or dietary modifications to reduce osteoporosis risk.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Usual activity after taking the multivitamin
Activity level is important for bone health, but the question specifically addresses the multivitamin. Activity after taking it has no effect on its benefit for osteoporosis prevention.
B. What time of day the multivitamin is taken
Timing is not critical for calcium absorption or osteoporosis prevention. The overall amount of calcium and vitamin D is far more important.
C. If the multivitamin is taken with a meal or snack
Some vitamins absorb better with food, but this does not address osteoporosis risk. Calcium adequacy is the central concern for bone strength, not meal timing.
While assessing a client following lithotripsy with stent insertion, which data indicates to the nurse that the procedure was successful?
- A Urine is pale pink with no observable blood clots.
- B Stone fragments are collected when straining the client's urine.
- C Client denies urinary frequency, urgency, or dysuria.
- D Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are within normal limits.
Explanation
B. Stone fragments are collected when straining the client's urine
The primary goal of lithotripsy is to break renal calculi into smaller fragments that can be passed naturally through the urinary tract. Finding stone fragments in strained urine is the most direct, objective evidence that the procedure successfully fragmented the calculi. This confirms that the treatment achieved its intended therapeutic effect.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports persistent fatigue caused by difficulty resting comfortably. The nurse identifies the nursing problem of “Fatigue related to chronic pain and disturbed rest.” Which intervention is most appropriate to add to the client’s plan of care?
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Request a referral for placement in an assisted living facility.
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Reassure the client that the fatigue phase of the illness will soon subside.
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Recommend strict bedrest to promote energy conservation.
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Teach the client how to prioritize daily tasks and pace activities.
Explanation
The Correct Answer is: D. Teach the client how to prioritize daily tasks and pace activities.
Explanation of the Correct Answer
Fatigue in rheumatoid arthritis is chronic and influenced by pain, inflammation, and poor rest. Encouraging the client to prioritize essential activities and balance rest with manageable activity promotes energy conservation and independence. This self-management strategy supports long-term coping and prevents overexertion, aligning with evidence-based care for chronic illness.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Request a referral for placement in an assisted living facility
Premature, since most individuals with rheumatoid arthritis manage their condition at home. Assisted living is not a standard fatigue intervention.
B. Reassure the client that the fatigue phase of the illness will soon subside
Fatigue in rheumatoid arthritis is often ongoing and variable. False reassurance minimizes the client’s lived experience and does not offer a realistic coping tool.
C. Recommend strict bedrest to promote energy conservation
Prolonged bedrest worsens joint stiffness, reduces muscle strength, and increases fatigue. Clients benefit more from balancing activity with rest, not complete immobility.
An older adult client arrives at the outpatient eye surgery clinic for a right cataract extraction and lens implant. During the immediate postoperative period, which intervention should the nurse implement?
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Obtain vital signs every 2 hours during hospitalization.
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Provide an eye shield to be worn while sleeping.
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Teach a family member to administer eye drops.
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Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Explanation
The Correct Answer is: B. Provide an eye shield to be worn while sleeping.
Explanation of the Correct Answer
B. Provide an eye shield to be worn while sleeping
After cataract extraction and lens implant, the eye is vulnerable to pressure or trauma. An eye shield protects the surgical site from accidental rubbing or injury, especially during sleep. This intervention is essential to prevent complications such as wound dehiscence or increased intraocular pressure, supporting safe healing during the immediate postoperative period.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Obtain vital signs every 2 hours during hospitalization
Cataract surgery is usually an outpatient procedure, and frequent vital sign monitoring every 2 hours is not necessary once the client is stable. Post-op care focuses more on eye protection and medication compliance.
C. Teach a family member to administer eye drops
Teaching is important, but in the immediate postoperative period the nurse’s priority is to protect the operative eye. Education about medications is typically reinforced before discharge, not as the first intervention.
D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises
Coughing should be avoided after eye surgery because it increases intraocular pressure, which could disrupt healing. Gentle deep breathing for relaxation may be allowed, but coughing is contraindicated.
Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
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Client describes a schedule for antacid use with other prescribed medications.
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Client agrees to participate in a variety of stress reduction techniques
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Client selects a pattern of small meals alternating with fluid intake
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Client expresses a willingness to reduce nicotine intake
Explanation
The Correct Answer is: C. Client selects a pattern of small meals alternating with fluid intake.
Explanation of the Correct Answer
Dumping syndrome is a common complication after a Billroth II procedure. Food moves too quickly into the small intestine, causing nausea, diarrhea, diaphoresis, and sometimes dizziness after meals. The most effective strategy is dietary modification: eating small, frequent meals, avoiding fluids with meals, and lying down briefly after eating to slow gastric emptying. By selecting a pattern of small meals alternating with fluid intake, the client adopts behaviors that directly reduce dumping syndrome symptoms and improve nutritional absorption.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Client describes a schedule for antacid use with other prescribed medications
Antacids may be used to reduce gastric irritation, but they do not address the pathophysiology of dumping syndrome. The client’s symptoms are best managed through dietary changes, not antacid scheduling.
B. Client agrees to participate in a variety of stress reduction techniques
While stress can worsen gastrointestinal symptoms, dumping syndrome is caused by altered gastric emptying after surgery, not stress. Stress reduction may help overall well-being, but it does not resolve the client’s core postoperative complication.
D. Client expresses a willingness to reduce nicotine intake
Nicotine cessation is beneficial for overall healing and health, but it does not directly alleviate the rapid emptying and fluid shifts responsible for the symptoms. Thus, while advisable, it is not the most relevant expected outcome for this situation.
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