NURS 218 Fall 25 Eating Disorder Sexual Dysfunction at Baton Rouge Community College

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Free NURS 218 Fall 25 Eating Disorder Sexual Dysfunction at Baton Rouge Community College Questions

1.

The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a new patient. During the interview, the patient reports becoming sexually aroused only by being handcuffed and beaten by a partner. The nurse documents this as which paraphilia?

  • A Pedophilia

  • B Sadism

  • C Masochism

  • D Frotteurism

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
C. Masochism
Explanation
Masochism is characterized by sexual arousal derived from being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer. In this case, the patient reports arousal only when being handcuffed and beaten, which directly aligns with masochistic behaviors. This paraphilia involves the individual being the recipient of pain or humiliation. Proper identification is important for accurate documentation, mental health assessment, and determining whether the behavior causes distress or impairment requiring clinical intervention.
2.

While performing an assessment on a patient being admitted for a surgical gender reassignment, which statement made by the patient would indicate that further patient teaching is indicated?

  • A "I will more than likely be able to experience sexual stimulation."

  • B "My genital area will now appear like I feel."

  • C "I am glad I don't have to take hormones any more."

  • D "It may take a while for my incision to heal."

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
C. I am glad I don't have to take hormones any more.
Explanation
This statement indicates a misunderstanding of postoperative care because most patients undergoing gender reassignment surgery must continue hormone therapy for life. Hormones are essential for maintaining the secondary sex characteristics that affirm their gender identity and support long-term physical and emotional well-being. Surgery does not replace the need for hormonal support; instead, both remain integrated components of gender-affirming treatment. Continuing hormones also helps maintain bone density, metabolic stability, and desired physical traits.
3.

What is the priority nursing intervention when caring for a patient after an overdose of amphetamines?

  • A Offer intellectual activities to stimulate concentration.

  • B Monitor vital signs.

  • C Use warmers to maintain body temperature.

  • D Observe for depression

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
B. Monitor vital signs.
Explanation
Amphetamine overdose causes sympathetic nervous system overstimulation, which can rapidly lead to hypertensive crisis, tachycardia, hyperthermia, arrhythmias, seizures, and cardiovascular collapse. Because these physiologic changes can become life-threatening within minutes, continuous and close monitoring of vital signs is the priority intervention. Tracking heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, and respiratory status allows the nurse to detect deterioration early and initiate emergency measures such as cooling, antihypertensives, or seizure precautions.
4.

A patient with a known history of alcohol abuse has been transferred via ambulance to the emergency room. Initially, the patient exhibited anxiety, sweating, tremors, disorientation, and hyperactivity. What is the priority nursing concept to consider in planning interventions for this emergency condition?

  • A Addiction counseling

  • B Psychosis

  • C Safety

  • D Thermoregulation

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
C. Safety
Explanation
The patient is showing signs of acute alcohol withdrawal, which can escalate rapidly into seizures, hallucinations, or delirium tremens—conditions that carry significant risk for injury and death. Therefore, safety is the immediate priority. Ensuring a safe environment, preventing falls, monitoring neurological status, reducing stimulation, and preparing for emergency interventions (such as benzodiazepine administration) are essential. Once the patient is stabilized, additional concepts such as addiction counseling can be addressed.
5.

Prescribed: Phenobarbital elixir 35 mg PO BID
Available: Phenobarbital 20 mg per 5 mL
How many mL will the nurse administer per dose? (Record your answer to the nearest hundredth.)

  • A 7.50 mL

  • B 8.75 mL

  • C 6.25 mL

  • D 9.50 mL

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
B. 8.75 mL
Explanation
To find the correct volume, the nurse must calculate based on the available concentration of 20 mg in 5 mL. First determine how many milliliters contain 1 mg: 5 mL ÷ 20 mg = 0.25 mL per mg. Multiply this value by the ordered dose: 35 mg × 0.25 mL = 8.75 mL per dose. This delivers the exact prescribed 35 mg using the available liquid concentration.
6.

The patient is at the HIV Clinic for a follow-up appointment after a new diagnosis of HIV. The nurse provides verbal and written education on the transmission of HIV. The nurse includes which predominant mode of transmission in the HIV education?

  • A Saliva

  • B Plasma

  • C Tears

  • D Perspiration

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
B. Plasma
Explanation
HIV is transmitted through contact with infected bodily fluids that contain a high concentration of the virus. Blood and plasma carry the highest viral load and represent a predominant mode of transmission, especially through needle sharing, blood exposure, or sexual contact involving microscopic bleeding. In contrast, saliva, tears, and perspiration contain either no virus or only trace amounts insufficient to cause infection. Educating patients on high-risk bodily fluids helps promote accurate understanding and safe practices.
7.

A nurse receiving a post-op bariatric surgery patient can expect to perform which of the following nursing actions?

  • A Perform assessment and compare to baseline assessment

  • B Assist with informed consent

  • C Position the patient upright at at least 45° HOB

  • D Teach patient to avoid drinking with a straw

  • E Assess baseline height and weight

  • F Assess abdominal wound for amount and type of drainage

  • G Give pain medications as needed

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
A Perform assessment and compare to baseline assessment
C Position the patient upright at at least 45° HOB
F Assess abdominal wound for amount and type of drainage
G Give pain medications as needed
Explanation
A Perform assessment and compare to baseline assessment
A full postoperative assessment is essential to identify early complications such as respiratory compromise, fluid imbalance, or bleeding. Comparing postoperative findings to baseline values allows the nurse to detect subtle but clinically important changes. Bariatric patients have increased postoperative risk, making a thorough assessment a priority upon arrival from surgery.

C Position the patient upright at at least 45° HOB
Positioning the patient upright decreases the risk of aspiration and promotes optimal ventilation. Bariatric surgery patients are at increased risk for hypoventilation, atelectasis, and respiratory depression following anesthesia. Upright positioning supports lung expansion and reduces strain on the diaphragm and surgical site, promoting safer and more comfortable recovery.

F Assess abdominal wound for amount and type of drainage
Postoperative bariatric patients require close monitoring of abdominal incisions or laparoscopic sites for signs of excessive bleeding, infection, or anastomotic leakage. Early detection of abnormal drainage characteristics—such as bright-red bleeding, foul odor, or cloudy fluid—allows prompt intervention and prevents severe postoperative complications.

G Give pain medications as needed
Adequate pain control helps the patient participate in deep breathing, coughing, and early ambulation, all essential for preventing postoperative complications. Bariatric surgery can cause significant discomfort, and poorly controlled pain increases risks such as hypoventilation, pneumonia, and delayed recovery. Providing analgesics as ordered supports healing and maintains patient comfort.
8.

When the nurse is caring for a patient whose human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status is unknown, which patient exposure is most likely to require postexposure prophylaxis?

  • A Needle stick injury used to administer an IM injection

  • B Splash into the eyes when emptying a bedpan containing stool

  • C Contamination of open skin lesions

  • D Needle stick injury used to draw blood

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
D. Needle stick injury used to draw blood
Explanation
A needle stick injury involving blood is considered the highest-risk exposure when a patient’s HIV status is unknown because blood contains the greatest concentration of HIV if the patient happens to be positive. Deep injuries with hollow-bore needles used for venous or arterial access significantly increase the risk of transmission. Because the exposure involves fresh blood and direct inoculation into the bloodstream, this situation requires immediate evaluation and the initiation of postexposure prophylaxis to prevent seroconversion.
9.

Which is the most therapeutic response by the nurse when a patient with anorexia nervosa expresses fear of gaining weight?

  • A "That fear is irrational and not based on reality."

  • B "It's not about weight, just follow the diet plan."

  • C "You have to eat or you'll be hospitalized."

  • D "Tell me more about your fear and how it makes you feel."

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
D. Tell me more about your fear and how it makes you feel.
Explanation
This response is the most therapeutic because it encourages the patient to explore and verbalize the emotions underlying the fear of weight gain—an essential step in treating anorexia nervosa. It demonstrates empathy, supports trust-building, and promotes insight by allowing the patient to express thoughts openly without judgment. Open-ended, patient-centered communication aligns with therapeutic techniques used in eating disorder treatment and helps the nurse better understand the patient’s internal experience, which guides supportive interventions.
10.

What does the nurse anticipate the health care provider will prescribe? See attachment tor nursing end of shift report

  • A Codeine

  • B Lorazepam

  • C Olanzapine

  • D Phenelzine

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
B. Lorazepam
Explanation
The shift report describes a 48-year-old male with alcohol dependence who is awake, anxious, agitated, diaphoretic, tachycardic, and experiencing visual hallucinations (“believes snakes are trying to get into the room”). These are classic signs of acute alcohol withdrawal, progressing toward delirium tremens (DTs)—a life-threatening condition. The priority medication for alcohol withdrawal is a benzodiazepine, and lorazepam is the safest and most commonly used option. It reduces agitation, prevents seizures, decreases autonomic hyperactivity, and stabilizes vital signs. This medication is essential to prevent worsening complications such as seizures, cardiovascular collapse, or severe psychosis. Codeine, olanzapine, and phenelzine are not appropriate for acute alcohol withdrawal and could worsen the patient’s condition.

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