NURS 218 Fall 25 Eating Disorder Sexual Dysfunction at Baton Rouge Community College
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Free NURS 218 Fall 25 Eating Disorder Sexual Dysfunction at Baton Rouge Community College Questions
1.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client diagnosed with TB. Which statement by the client with TB indicates a need for further teaching?
- A "I will cover my mouth when coughing."
- B "My family should get tested for TB."
- C "I can stop taking my medication when I feel better."
- D "I need to wear a mask in public places."
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
C. I can stop taking my medication when I feel better.Explanation
This statement reflects a dangerous misunderstanding. Treatment for tuberculosis requires taking multiple medications for the full prescribed duration, often 6–9 months. Stopping early, even if symptoms improve, can lead to treatment failure, relapse, and development of drug-resistant TB strains. Adherence is essential to eradicate the infection, prevent complications, and protect the public from transmission. This client requires additional teaching about strict medication adherence.
2.
While the nurse is obtaining a health history from a patient diagnosed with hepatitis C, what information reported by the patient indicates a risk factor for hepatitis C?
- A Recent travel to an underdeveloped country
- B Poor personal hygiene
- C Eating raw shellfish
- D Intravenous drug use
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
D. Intravenous drug useExplanation
Hepatitis C is primarily transmitted through exposure to infected blood. Intravenous drug use is the most significant risk factor, as sharing or reusing contaminated needles allows direct blood-to-blood transmission of the virus. Unlike hepatitis A, hepatitis C is not spread through food, water, hygiene issues, or travel to underdeveloped regions. Identifying IV drug use as a risk factor helps guide education, testing of contacts, and counseling on harm-reduction practices.
3.
Which nursing action has the highest priority for a hospitalized client with suspected TB?
- A Start the client on a clear liquid diet
- B Begin IV fluid therapy
- C Place the client in a negative pressure room
- D Initiate contact precautions
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
C. Place the client in a negative pressure roomExplanation
The highest-priority nursing action for a client with suspected tuberculosis is immediate airborne isolation in a negative pressure room. TB spreads through airborne droplets that can remain suspended in the air for long periods, making rapid isolation essential to prevent transmission to staff, visitors, and other patients. A negative pressure environment ensures contaminated air does not escape the room but is filtered and vented safely. This action aligns with CDC isolation guidelines for suspected or confirmed TB and must occur before any other interventions.
4.
A patient has been diagnosed with a Gender Identity disorder. The nurse understands which statement displays understanding of the disorder?
- A Humiliation of self or partner during the sexual act
- B Psychophysiological changes that compromise the sexual response cycle
- C Discomfort with one's own biological sex
- D Intense sexual urge focused on an object
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
C. Discomfort with one's own biological sexExplanation
Gender Identity Disorder—now termed Gender Dysphoria—is characterized by a strong, persistent discomfort with one’s assigned biological sex and a desire to live as the opposite gender. The distress comes from incongruence between experienced gender and physical characteristics. This condition is not related to sexual practices, arousal patterns, or paraphilias; instead, it involves deep psychological and emotional discomfort related to one’s gender identity, often beginning in childhood and continuing into adulthood.
5.
A nurse assesses four newly hospitalized patients. Which patient is most important for the nurse to ask about sexual functioning?
- A 35-year-old woman having a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
- B 48-year-old man with a diabetic foot ulcer.
- C 24-year-old woman having a laparoscopic appendectomy.
- D 8-year-old boy on chemotherapy for myelogenous leukemia
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
D. 8-year-old boy on chemotherapy for myelogenous leukemiaExplanation
Chemotherapy for leukemia often causes significant alterations in sexual development, including delayed puberty, impaired fertility, hormonal suppression, and long-term reproductive complications. Although an 8-year-old is not sexually active, sexual functioning in pediatrics refers to growth and developmental milestones. Cancer treatment can profoundly impact testicular growth, sperm production, and endocrine function. Early assessment allows the nurse to monitor pubertal progression, address fertility preservation options, provide anticipatory guidance, and support the child and family in understanding potential long-term effects.
6.
When the nurse is caring for a patient whose human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status is unknown, which patient exposure is most likely to require postexposure prophylaxis?
- A Needle stick injury used to administer an IM injection
- B Splash into the eyes when emptying a bedpan containing stool
- C Contamination of open skin lesions
- D Needle stick injury used to draw blood
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
D. Needle stick injury used to draw bloodExplanation
A needle stick injury involving blood is considered the highest-risk exposure when a patient’s HIV status is unknown because blood contains the greatest concentration of HIV if the patient happens to be positive. Deep injuries with hollow-bore needles used for venous or arterial access significantly increase the risk of transmission. Because the exposure involves fresh blood and direct inoculation into the bloodstream, this situation requires immediate evaluation and the initiation of postexposure prophylaxis to prevent seroconversion.
7.
What does the nurse recognize as the hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis in a patient?
- A Vomiting coffee ground secretions
- B Right lower quadrant pain
- C Generalized abdominal pain relieved while eating
- D Sudden abdominal pain
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
D. Sudden abdominal painExplanation
The hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis is the abrupt onset of severe abdominal pain, typically located in the epigastric area and often radiating to the back. The pain is usually persistent, intense, and not relieved by eating—in fact, food often worsens it. This sudden severe pain occurs because digestive enzymes become activated within the pancreas, leading to inflammation and tissue autodigestion. Recognizing this hallmark presentation is essential for rapid diagnosis and treatment, as pancreatitis can progress quickly and may lead to serious complications.
8.
A nurse is caring for a patient after bariatric surgery. What is the priority nursing action when initiating oral fluids?
- A Give the patient crackers with water
- B Monitor for nausea and vomiting with sips of clear liquids
- C Start with 120 mL of water per hour
- D Provide fluids through a straw to control volume
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
B. Monitor for nausea and vomiting with sips of clear liquidsExplanation
After bariatric surgery, the stomach is extremely sensitive and can only tolerate very small amounts of fluid at a time. The priority is to begin with tiny sips of clear liquids and closely monitor the patient for nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, or signs of intolerance. Vomiting can be dangerous after bariatric surgery because it increases pressure on the staple line and may lead to dehydration, anastomotic leak, or other complications. Monitoring tolerance to small amounts of clear liquids ensures safe progression of intake and protects the integrity of the surgical site.
9.
Which psychosocial assessment findings are commonly associated with bulimia nervosa? Select all that apply.
- A Social withdrawal
- B Feelings of guilt and shame
- C Ritualistic food behaviors including journaling
- D Normal body weight or slightly overweight
- E Denial of binge-purge behavior
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
A Social withdrawalB Feelings of guilt and shame
D Normal body weight or slightly overweight
E Denial of binge-purge behavior
Explanation
A Social withdrawalIndividuals with bulimia nervosa often isolate themselves because their disordered eating patterns are secretive and shame-driven. They may avoid meals with others or situations that might expose their bingeing and purging behaviors. Social withdrawal reflects the emotional distress and fear of judgment that frequently accompany this disorder.
B Feelings of guilt and shame
Bulimia is strongly associated with guilt, shame, and self-disgust after bingeing and purging episodes. These emotions reinforce the cycle of secrecy and maladaptive coping. Patients may obsess about their behaviors and feel personal failure, contributing to low self-esteem and worsening psychological distress.
D Normal body weight or slightly overweight
Unlike anorexia nervosa, individuals with bulimia nervosa typically maintain a normal or slightly elevated body weight. This is because binge episodes may involve large amounts of calories, and purging does not eliminate the majority of what is consumed. Normal weight often leads to delayed diagnosis since physical appearance may not reflect the severity of the disorder.
E Denial of binge-purge behavior
Denial is common because bulimic behaviors are secretive and highly distressing to the individual. Patients may hide symptoms out of embarrassment or fear of judgment. This denial complicates assessment and treatment, as accurate information about frequency and severity of behaviors is essential for developing an effective care plan.
10.
What does the nurse anticipate the health care provider will prescribe? See attachment tor nursing end of shift report
- A Codeine
- B Lorazepam
- C Olanzapine
- D Phenelzine
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
B. LorazepamExplanation
The shift report describes a 48-year-old male with alcohol dependence who is awake, anxious, agitated, diaphoretic, tachycardic, and experiencing visual hallucinations (“believes snakes are trying to get into the room”). These are classic signs of acute alcohol withdrawal, progressing toward delirium tremens (DTs)—a life-threatening condition. The priority medication for alcohol withdrawal is a benzodiazepine, and lorazepam is the safest and most commonly used option. It reduces agitation, prevents seizures, decreases autonomic hyperactivity, and stabilizes vital signs. This medication is essential to prevent worsening complications such as seizures, cardiovascular collapse, or severe psychosis. Codeine, olanzapine, and phenelzine are not appropriate for acute alcohol withdrawal and could worsen the patient’s condition.How to Order
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