NURS 218 Fall 25 Eating Disorder Sexual Dysfunction at Baton Rouge Community College
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Free NURS 218 Fall 25 Eating Disorder Sexual Dysfunction at Baton Rouge Community College Questions
A nurse teaches a group of other nurses about the safety issues associated with bulimia. Which statement by a learner indicates an adequate understanding of the most significant safety risk associated with bulimia?
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A "The vomiting when purging may lead to dehydration and hypotension."
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B "The presence of callouses on a client's fingers means they self-induce vomiting."
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C "The vomiting may cause breakdown of the tooth enamel."
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D "Use of laxatives may cause diarrhea and skin breakdown."
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
A. The vomiting when purging may lead to dehydration and hypotension.Explanation
Although many complications occur with bulimia, the most significant safety risk is fluid and electrolyte imbalance caused by repeated vomiting. Excessive loss of fluids and gastric acids can result in severe dehydration, hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. These electrolyte disturbances—especially low potassium—can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Recognizing dehydration and circulatory compromise as the most urgent physical threat is essential for early intervention and patient safety.What does the nurse anticipate the health care provider will prescribe? See attachment tor nursing end of shift report
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A Codeine
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B Lorazepam
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C Olanzapine
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D Phenelzine
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
B. LorazepamExplanation
The shift report describes a 48-year-old male with alcohol dependence who is awake, anxious, agitated, diaphoretic, tachycardic, and experiencing visual hallucinations (“believes snakes are trying to get into the room”). These are classic signs of acute alcohol withdrawal, progressing toward delirium tremens (DTs)—a life-threatening condition. The priority medication for alcohol withdrawal is a benzodiazepine, and lorazepam is the safest and most commonly used option. It reduces agitation, prevents seizures, decreases autonomic hyperactivity, and stabilizes vital signs. This medication is essential to prevent worsening complications such as seizures, cardiovascular collapse, or severe psychosis. Codeine, olanzapine, and phenelzine are not appropriate for acute alcohol withdrawal and could worsen the patient’s condition.The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with substance use disorder who recently injected heroin. During the physical assessment, which findings are likely to be present?
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A Drowsiness, constricted pupils, slurred speech
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B Anxiety, restlessness, paranoid delusions
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C Muscle aching, dilated pupils, tachycardia
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D Heightened sexuality, insomnia, euphoria
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
A. Drowsiness, constricted pupils, slurred speechExplanation
Heroin is an opioid, and recent opioid use produces classic signs of central nervous system depression. These include profound drowsiness, slowed or slurred speech, and pinpoint (constricted) pupils, which are hallmark indicators of opioid intoxication. Other findings may include slowed breathing, decreased level of consciousness, and impaired coordination. Because these symptoms reflect active opioid effects rather than withdrawal or stimulant use, they are the most accurate for a patient who has recently injected heroin.While performing an assessment on a patient being admitted for a surgical gender reassignment, which statement made by the patient would indicate that further patient teaching is indicated?
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A "I will more than likely be able to experience sexual stimulation."
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B "My genital area will now appear like I feel."
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C "I am glad I don't have to take hormones any more."
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D "It may take a while for my incision to heal."
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
C. I am glad I don't have to take hormones any more.Explanation
This statement indicates a misunderstanding of postoperative care because most patients undergoing gender reassignment surgery must continue hormone therapy for life. Hormones are essential for maintaining the secondary sex characteristics that affirm their gender identity and support long-term physical and emotional well-being. Surgery does not replace the need for hormonal support; instead, both remain integrated components of gender-affirming treatment. Continuing hormones also helps maintain bone density, metabolic stability, and desired physical traits.The patient is at the HIV Clinic for a follow-up appointment after a new diagnosis of HIV. The nurse provides verbal and written education on the transmission of HIV. The nurse includes which predominant mode of transmission in the HIV education?
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A Saliva
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B Plasma
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C Tears
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D Perspiration
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
B. PlasmaExplanation
HIV is transmitted through contact with infected bodily fluids that contain a high concentration of the virus. Blood and plasma carry the highest viral load and represent a predominant mode of transmission, especially through needle sharing, blood exposure, or sexual contact involving microscopic bleeding. In contrast, saliva, tears, and perspiration contain either no virus or only trace amounts insufficient to cause infection. Educating patients on high-risk bodily fluids helps promote accurate understanding and safe practices.During physical assessment of a patient who has sinus headaches, the nurse finds nasal sores and necrosis of the nasal septum. The nurse should ask the patient specifically about the use of which of the following drugs?
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A Heroin
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B Marijuana
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C Cocaine
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D Tobacco
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
C. CocaineExplanation
Cocaine, when inhaled through the nose, causes intense vasoconstriction of the nasal mucosa, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue ischemia. Chronic intranasal use can result in ulcerations, crusting, recurrent nosebleeds, and eventually necrosis of the nasal septum. These findings—especially septal perforation—are classic indicators of long-term cocaine inhalation. Because this presentation is strongly associated with intranasal cocaine use, it is the drug the nurse should specifically inquire about.A nurse reviews labs of a client with HIV. Which finding is most concerning?
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A CD4 count of 700
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B Platelets 150,000
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C Viral load of 1 million copies/mL
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D Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
C. Viral load of 1 million copies/mLExplanation
A viral load of 1 million copies/mL is extremely concerning because it indicates active, uncontrolled viral replication and rapid disease progression. High viral loads significantly increase the risk of opportunistic infections, decline in immune function, and transmission to others. This finding suggests the client may not be adherent to antiretroviral therapy or may be experiencing treatment failure. Immediate evaluation and adjustment of the HIV treatment plan are necessary to prevent irreversible immune system damage.When lactulose 30 mL four times daily is ordered for a patient with advanced cirrhosis, the patient complains that it causes diarrhea. The nurse explains to the patient that it is still important to take the medication because the lactulose will result in which outcome?
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A Prevention of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding
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B Improved nervous system function
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C Promotion of fluid loss
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D Prevention of constipation
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
B. Improved nervous system functionExplanation
Lactulose is given to patients with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels, which are responsible for hepatic encephalopathy. It works by trapping ammonia in the stool and promoting its excretion. Although diarrhea is an expected side effect, the medication is essential because lowering ammonia levels improves cognitive function, decreases confusion, and prevents progression to severe encephalopathy or coma. The primary goal is neurological improvement, not bowel regulation.A patient has not had a menstrual period for 8 months. She is 5'5" tall and weighs 115 pounds. She does not binge, but she misuses laxatives on a daily basis. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for the patient?
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A Ineffective denial
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B Imbalanced nutrition
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C Body image disturbance
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D Anxiety
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
B. Imbalanced nutritionExplanation
The priority concern for this patient is imbalanced nutrition because she shows clear indications of physiological compromise: secondary amenorrhea, low body weight for height, and chronic laxative misuse. These findings strongly suggest inadequate nutritional intake and potential electrolyte disturbances. In eating-related disorders, physiological stability and restoring nutritional balance always take precedence over psychological factors. Addressing nutrition is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, bone loss, hormonal disruption, and further metabolic instability.When caring for a patient with a Gender Identity disorder, it is important for the nurse to attempt to correct misperceptions. What is the nursing intervention that best elicits this information?
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A Spend time with the patient and show positive regard.
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B Allow the patient to describe their perception of the problem.
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C Discuss types of culturally accepted behaviors with the patient.
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D Interview the patient’s family and discuss their concerns.
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
B. Allow the patient to describe their perception of the problem.Explanation
The most effective way to identify and correct misperceptions is to first understand exactly how the patient views their gender-related concerns. Encouraging the patient to openly describe their thoughts, feelings, and perceptions allows the nurse to identify distortions, misinformation, or emotional conflicts that may be present. This patient-centered approach fosters trust and helps the nurse tailor education, emotional support, and therapeutic interventions that align with the patient’s lived experience.How to Order
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