NR 306 CJE Health Assessment Benchmark W7 at Chamberlain University

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Free NR 306 CJE Health Assessment Benchmark W7 at Chamberlain University Questions

1.

The nurse prepares to do an ankle-brachial index on a 65-year-old male client with peripheral artery disease. Which would cause the nurse to postpone the procedure?

  • A The client took a walk 30 minutes ago.

  • B The client smoked a cigarette an hour ago.

  • C The client drank 8 oz of water 30 minutes ago.

  • D The client took their cardiac meds an hour ago.

Explanation

Explanation
The ankle-brachial index (ABI) requires the client to be in a resting, non-exerted vascular state. Exercise—such as walking—even 30 minutes prior to the test can temporarily alter blood flow, decrease ankle pressures, and artificially lower the ABI result. To ensure accurate measurement of arterial perfusion, the client must rest quietly in a supine position for at least 10–20 minutes before the procedure. Any recent physical exertion is a valid reason to postpone the ABI until vascular pressures have stabilized.
2.

The nurse palpates a client's carotid arteries. Which finding would the nurse need to document in the electronic health record?

  • A A vibration over a vessel.

  • B Equal peripheral pulses bilaterally.

  • C Strong central pulses.

  • D A bounding pulse after exertion.

Explanation

Explanation
A vibration felt over the carotid artery is known as a thrill, which is an abnormal finding. It indicates turbulent blood flow and may signal conditions such as carotid artery stenosis or an aneurysm. Because this finding reflects a potential cardiovascular abnormality requiring further evaluation, it must be documented promptly and clearly in the health record. Documentation ensures continuity of care and alerts the provider to investigate the cause.
3.

During a new client interview, the nurse assesses the client's ability to perform instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). What question should the nurse ask to determine the client's competence in this area?

  • A "Are there any family situations that cause difficulty for you?"

  • B "Can you explain how you shop for your necessities?"

  • C "Can you tell me what your schedule was like yesterday?"

  • D "What things do you do regularly to stay healthy?"

Explanation

Explanation
Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) include tasks that are necessary for independent living but are more complex than basic activities of daily living (ADLs). Shopping for necessities is a key IADL that involves planning, organizing, and executing a task, as well as managing transportation and money. Asking the client how they manage shopping helps assess their cognitive, physical, and financial ability to perform this IADL independently, which is important for evaluating their overall functional competence.
4.

The nurse examines the ear of an adult with an otoscope. What technique should the nurse use?

  • A Tilt the client's head slightly toward the examiner.

  • B Choose the largest speculum that fits comfortably in the ear.

  • C Hold the pinna of the ear down and back.

  • D Hold the otoscope right side up with the examiner's hand against the client's cheek.

Explanation

Explanation
When examining an adult’s ear with an otoscope, the nurse should always select the largest speculum that fits comfortably because a wider opening allows better visualization of the external canal and tympanic membrane. A larger speculum also stabilizes the otoscope within the canal, reducing the risk of injury and improving lighting and field of view. This is a fundamental and essential step in accurate otoscopic assessment.
5.

Which of the following statements about change authorization is CORRECT?

  • Every time a standard change is requested, a change authority is assigned

  • The technician making an emergency change can authorize such changes

  • The change type and model is the basis for assigning the change authority

  • Ensuring that changes are authorized after their deployment is done by the change authority

Explanation

Explanation
Change authorization is based on the type and model of the change. For example, standard changes (which are pre-approved and low risk) typically do not require individual authorization each time they are implemented. However, emergency or significant changes may require a higher level of authority for approval. The change type and model help define the level of authorization needed, ensuring that appropriate controls are in place for different kinds of changes.
Correct Answer Is:
C) The change type and model is the basis for assigning the change authority
6.

A nurse is asked to assess a client's stage II pressure injury. What findings would the nurse expect to see for this assessment? Select all that apply.

  • A The skin has a blackened hard exudate covering the surface.

  • B The skin is intact and non-blanchable.

  • C The injury presents as a skin tear.

  • D Tunneling is present.

  • E Partial-thickness skin loss of the epidermis is evident.

  • F The pressure injury is a blister.

Explanation

Explanation

E. Partial-thickness skin loss of the epidermis is evident
A Stage II pressure injury involves partial-thickness loss of skin, affecting the epidermis and possibly the dermis. The wound is shallow and open, often appearing pink or red without slough. This finding matches the definition of Stage II.

F. The pressure injury is a blister
A Stage II injury may present as an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. Blisters occur because of separation of skin layers due to pressure and shear forces, making this a hallmark sign of Stage II pressure injuries.


7.

A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling hungry and thirsty most of the time, with the frequent need to urinate in large amounts. How should the nurse document these findings?

  • A Client reports having to urinate frequently but having difficulty initiating urination.

  • B Client reports signs of polyuria, anorexia, and dysuria.

  • C Client reports always being hungry and urinates more than is appropriate.

  • D Client reports polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia.

Explanation

Explanation
The classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus include polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger). These symptoms are related to the body's inability to regulate glucose effectively, leading to increased blood glucose levels, fluid loss, and altered hunger signals. Documenting these symptoms helps identify possible issues with blood sugar control and provides a clear picture of the client's current state, guiding further assessment and intervention.
8.

What is included in the purpose of the 'release management' practice?

  • Ensuring information about services is available

  • Moving new software to live environments

  • Making new features available for use

  • Authorizing changes to proceed

Explanation

Explanation
Release management is responsible for planning, scheduling, and controlling the movement of releases to test and live environments. This includes making sure that new software, updates, or bug fixes are deployed smoothly into production systems with minimal disruption. It ensures that the service is available with the latest features and improvements.
Correct Answer Is:
B) Moving new software to live environments
9.

What are the KEY stakeholder groups that service providers should cooperate with?

  • Suppliers

  • Customers

  • Relationship managers

  • Developers

Explanation

Explanation
The key stakeholder group that service providers should cooperate with is the customers. Understanding customer needs, expectations, and feedback is essential for delivering value through services.
Correct Answer Is:
B) Customers
Cooperation with customers ensures that the services are aligned with their requirements, enabling the provider to meet or exceed expectations, enhance customer satisfaction, and drive ongoing improvements. This collaborative relationship is central to the success of any service provider.
By focusing on customer cooperation, organizations can ensure that their services remain relevant and valuable to those who use them, leading to sustained success and growth.
10.

Which ITIL concept helps an organization to make good decisions?

  • Four dimensions of service management

  • Guiding principles

  • Service value chain

  • Practices

Explanation

Explanation
The ITIL guiding principles are designed to help organizations make good decisions by providing universal recommendations that can guide behaviors and actions. These principles help organizations to focus on what matters most, ensuring that decisions are aligned with the organization's goals and objectives. They are intended to foster continuous improvement, collaboration, and a holistic approach to service management.
Correct Answer Is:
B) Guiding principles
By following these guiding principles, organizations can create a culture of decision-making that is aligned with best practices and customer needs, thereby improving service delivery and business outcomes.

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