ATI NU 160 Final Exam Spring 2025

ATI NU 160 Final Exam Spring 2025

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Free ATI NU 160 Final Exam Spring 2025 Questions

1.

A nurse is providing teaching to a group of clients about changes that occur when clients experience open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching

  • Vision changes occur when pressure in the eye is increased due to a decrease of aqueous humor.

  • Vision changes occur when blood vessels leak fluid or blood under a portion of the retina.

  • Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye.

  • Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye

Explanation

Correct Answer A: Vision changes occur when pressure in the eye is increased due to a decrease of aqueous humor.

Explanation:

 Open-angle glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure caused by a gradual blockage in the eye’s drainage canals. This prevents the proper outflow of aqueous humor, leading to pressure buildup. Over time, this elevated pressure damages the optic nerve, resulting in peripheral vision loss. It’s often painless and progressive, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

B. Vision changes occur when blood vessels leak fluid or blood under a portion of the retina.

This describes a condition like diabetic retinopathy or wet age-related macular degeneration, not glaucoma. These disorders are related to vascular changes in the retina, not increased intraocular pressure.

C. Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye.

This is a description of cataracts. Cataracts involve a cloudy lens, which impairs vision by blocking or scattering light. Glaucoma affects the optic nerve, not the lens.

D. Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye.

This describes retinal detachment, a medical emergency where the retina separates from its blood supply. It is not related to the pressure-induced nerve damage seen in open-angle glaucoma.


2.

A nurse is teaching a client who has acute kidney disease about fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client should the nurse identify as understanding of the teaching

  • I will make a list of my favorite beverages.

  • I will not add ice cream to the amount of fluid intake.

  • I will put beverages in large containers to give the appearance of drinking a lot.

  • I should consume most of the fluid during the evening.

Explanation

Correct Answer A: I will make a list of my favorite beverages.

Explanation:

 Clients with acute kidney injury must strictly monitor fluid intake to avoid volume overload. Making a list of favorite beverages helps patients prioritize which fluids they enjoy most and plan their daily intake wisely. It reflects understanding and participation in self-management.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

B. I will not add ice cream to the amount of fluid intake.

 This reflects a misunderstanding. Foods like ice cream, gelatin, and soup must be counted toward total fluid intake because they melt into liquid. Excluding them could lead to unintentional fluid overload.

C. I will put beverages in large containers to give the appearance of drinking a lot.

 This strategy can be misleading. The goal is to limit actual intake, not create an illusion. This statement shows the client is trying to trick themselves, which is not appropriate for managing a strict restriction.

D. I should consume most of the fluid during the evening.

 This can lead to discomfort, nocturia, and sleep disturbances. Fluids should be spaced evenly throughout the day to avoid complications and ensure better management of fluid balance.


3.

A nurse is performing preoperative assessments on a client who has a suspected detached retina. Which of the following should the nurse expect to find

  •  Smooth retina edges identified on slit lamp biomicroscope examination

  • Visual acuity of 20/20 using the Snellen eye chart

  • Tonometer intraocular pressure reading 5 mm Hg

  • Lens and cornea appear intact during ophthalmoscopic exam

Explanation

Correct Answer C: Tonometer intraocular pressure reading 5 mm Hg

Explanation:

C. Tonometer intraocular pressure reading 5 mm Hg

A detached retina often leads to decreased intraocular pressure, which can result from a loss of fluid in the eye. The nurse may find a tonometer reading of low intraocular pressure, such as 5 mm Hg, during the preoperative assessment. This is consistent with the pathophysiology of a retinal detachment.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Smooth retina edges identified on slit lamp biomicroscope examination

 In retinal detachment, the edges of the retina will typically appear irregular or undulating due to the separation of the retina from the underlying tissue. Smooth edges would not be expected in this scenario.

B. Visual acuity of 20/20 using the Snellen eye chart

 A client with a detached retina is likely to have visual disturbances such as blurred vision, flashes of light, or a "curtain" effect in their visual field. A normal visual acuity of 20/20 is unlikely, especially with a suspected retinal detachment.

D. Lens and cornea appear intact during ophthalmoscopic exam

 While a retinal detachment affects the retina, the lens and cornea might appear intact in the initial stages. However, the ophthalmoscopic exam might reveal signs such as retinal tears, elevation, or folds in the retina, rather than just the intact lens and cornea.


4.

 A nurse is assessing a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and has a blood glucose level of 550 mg/dL. Which of the following should the nurse assess the client for if diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is suspected

  • Mental status changes

  • Dizziness

  • Nervousness

  • Cool, clammy skin

Explanation

Correct Answer A: Mental status changes

Explanation:

 Mental status changes, such as confusion or decreased alertness, are a hallmark of severe DKA due to the effects of hyperglycemia and metabolic acidosis on the brain. Elevated ketone levels and dehydration can lead to cerebral edema and altered consciousness. This is a critical finding that suggests worsening DKA and requires urgent intervention.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

B. Dizziness:

 While dizziness may occur in many conditions, it is non-specific and not one of the key diagnostic signs of DKA. It may be present in dehydration, but mental status changes take clinical priority and are more definitive in DKA assessment.

C. Nervousness:

 This symptom is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not DKA. Clients with low blood sugar often feel jittery or anxious, which contrasts with the mental dulling or confusion of hyperglycemic crises like DKA.

D. Cool, clammy skin:

 This is a sign of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. DKA is more often associated with dry, warm skin due to dehydration. Cool and clammy skin would not be expected in this hyperglycemic state.


5.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has peripheral venous disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care

  • Ankle-brachial index test

  • Exercise

  • Elevation of legs

  • Intermittent pneumatic compression pumps

  • Layered wraps

Explanation

Correct Answers:

B. Exercise

C. Elevation of legs

D. Intermittent pneumatic compression pumps

E. Layered wraps


Explanation:

 Peripheral venous disease (PVD), especially chronic venous insufficiency, involves poor blood return from the legs. Management focuses on improving venous circulation, preventing stasis, and promoting return to the heart.

B. Exercise helps strengthen calf muscles, improving venous return.

C. Elevation of legs reduces venous pressure and edema.

D. Intermittent pneumatic compression pumps promote circulation and reduce the risk of venous stasis.

E. Layered wraps provide compression therapy to support venous return and reduce swelling.

Why Other Option is Wrong:

A. Ankle-brachial index test:

 This diagnostic test is used to assess arterial insufficiency, not venous disease. It helps differentiate between peripheral artery disease (PAD) and PVD, so while useful diagnostically, it is not a direct intervention for venous disease care.


6.

A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a change in vision. Which of the following statements indicates that the client might be developing cataracts

  • I can’t see objects from the sides of my eyes.

  • There are dark spots moving around in my eye.

  • My vision is blurry and objects are hazy.

  • I can’t see anything in the middle part of my eyes.

Explanation

Correct Answer C: My vision is blurry and objects are hazy.

Explanation:

Cataracts cause a clouding of the lens, leading to blurry, hazy vision, sensitivity to light, and decreased night vision. It often progresses slowly and is a common age-related change in the eye.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

A. I can’t see objects from the sides of my eyes.

This is a symptom of glaucoma, which affects peripheral vision due to increased intraocular pressure damaging the optic nerve.

B. There are dark spots moving around in my eye.

These are known as floaters and can be normal with age, but are more concerning when associated with retinal detachment of vitreous hemorrhage.

D. I can’t see anything in the middle part of my eyes.

This suggests macular degeneration, where central vision deteriorates due to damage to the macula, not cataracts.


7.

A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the primary action of sucralfate in the treatment of ulcers

  • Sucralfate promotes healing of the ulcer by increasing blood flow to the area

  • Sucralfate coats the ulcer and protects it from the actions of pepsin and acid.

  • Sucralfate neutralizes stomach acid.

  • Sucralfate inhibits the growth of H. pylori bacteria.

Explanation

Correct Answer B: Sucralfate coats the ulcer and protects it from the actions of pepsin and acid.

Explanation:

B. Sucralfate coats the ulcer and protects it from the actions of pepsin and acid.

 Sucralfate is a medication that works by forming a protective barrier over the ulcer. This barrier helps protect the ulcer from the damaging effects of stomach acid and pepsin, promoting healing. It does not directly affect the acid production or the bacteria but instead protects the ulcerated area.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Sucralfate promotes healing of the ulcer by increasing blood flow to the area.

 Sucralfate does not increase blood flow to the ulcer. Its primary function is to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, which helps in healing, but it doesn't enhance blood circulation.

C. Sucralfate neutralizes stomach acid.

 This is incorrect because sucralfate does not neutralize stomach acid. Medications such as antacids or proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are used for neutralizing stomach acid. Sucralfate works differently by creating a protective coating on the ulcer.

D. Sucralfate inhibits the growth of H. pylori bacteria.

 Sucralfate does not directly inhibit H. pylori growth. While H. pylori infection is a common cause of peptic ulcers, sucralfate does not target the bacteria itself. H. pylori infections are typically treated with antibiotics or proton pump inhibitors.


8.

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching

  • Monitor for any increase or unintentional weight gain.

  • Monitor for the appearance of ecchymosis on the sides of your abdomen/pelvic areas.

  • Monitor for any changes in the color of your stool such as dark or black-colored stool.

  • Monitor for any changes in the color of your urine such as maroon or red-colored urine.

Explanation

Correct Answer C: Monitor for any changes in the color of your stool such as dark or black-colored stool.

Explanation:

 Dark or black-colored stools, also known as melena, can be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a common complication of peptic ulcers. The blood from the ulcer can travel through the gastrointestinal tract and appear black or tarry when excreted in the stool. It is important for the nurse to instruct the client to monitor for these signs as they may require prompt medical attention to prevent further complications.

Why "C" is correct:

 C. "Monitor for any changes in the color of your stool such as dark or black-colored stool."

 This instruction is crucial because black or tarry stools indicate the presence of digested blood, which could be a sign of active bleeding from the ulcer. Early identification of this symptom can help prevent more severe complications, such as hypovolemic shock or the need for blood transfusions.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Monitor for any increase or unintentional weight gain.

 Weight gain is not typically associated with peptic ulcers, and it is not a common symptom to monitor in this context. In fact, weight loss might occur in severe cases due to difficulty eating or nausea. Therefore, weight gain is not a relevant symptom for monitoring in clients with peptic ulcers.

B. Monitor for the appearance of ecchymosis on the sides of your abdomen/pelvic areas.

 Ecchymosis (bruising) is not a typical sign of a peptic ulcer. While bleeding from an ulcer may occur, it typically presents with symptoms like dark stools, abdominal pain, and vomiting blood. Ecchymosis may be a sign of other medical conditions or trauma, but it is not directly related to peptic ulcers.

D. Monitor for any changes in the color of your urine such as maroon or red-colored urine.

 Red or maroon-colored urine may suggest urinary tract issues, such as a urinary tract infection, kidney stones, or hematuria. This is not directly related to peptic ulcers. The focus for the client with a peptic ulcer should be on signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, such as black or tarry stools, rather than changes in urine color.


9.

 A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic respiratory acidosis due to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect with this client

  • Anxiety and depression

  • Polyuria

  • Delirium

  • Osteoporosis

Explanation

Correct Answer C: Delirium

Explanation:

 Chronic respiratory acidosis causes elevated carbon dioxide (CO₂) levels in the blood, leading to changes in mental status. As CO₂ builds up, it can affect brain function, resulting in confusion, restlessness, and eventually delirium. This is a hallmark symptom of severe, untreated or poorly managed respiratory acidosis.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

A. Anxiety and depression:

 While clients with chronic illnesses may experience emotional disturbances, these are not specific clinical manifestations of respiratory acidosis. Delirium is a more acute and direct indicator of CO₂ retention.

B. Polyuria:

 Polyuria is not associated with respiratory acidosis or COPD. It is more commonly linked to diabetes mellitus, diuretic use, or disorders of fluid regulation, not acid-base imbalances.

D. Osteoporosis:

 Osteoporosis is not a direct outcome of COPD or respiratory acidosis. It may occur due to long-term corticosteroid use in some COPD patients, but it is not a symptom or expected finding of acidosis itself.


10.

A nurse is teaching a client about risk factors for osteoarthritis. Which of the following factors should the nurse include in the teaching

  • Smoking

  • Diuretics

  • Aging

  • Obesity

  • Bacteria

Explanation

Correct Answers:

C: Aging

D: Obesity


Explanation:

C. Aging

Osteoarthritis (OA) is a degenerative joint disease, and the risk increases with age due to the natural wear and tear on joints over time.

D. Obesity

Excess body weight places additional stress on weight-bearing joints like the knees and hips, increasing the risk for OA development.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Smoking

While smoking is a risk factor for many chronic diseases, it is not directly linked to the development of osteoarthritis.

B. Diuretics

Diuretics are not a recognized risk factor for osteoarthritis. They are more relevant in conditions like hypertension and heart failure.

E. Bacteria

Bacterial infections can lead to septic arthritis, not osteoarthritis, which is a non-inflammatory, degenerative joint disease.


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