Anatomy and Physiology II (M8) Comprehensive Lecture Exam

Anatomy and Physiology II  (M8) Comprehensive Lecture Exam

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Free Anatomy and Physiology II (M8) Comprehensive Lecture Exam Questions

1.

After a parent cell undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes are there in the resultant gametes?

  • 46 chromosomes

  • 14 chromosomes

  • 23 chromosomes

  • 92 chromosomes

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. 23 chromosomes

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Meiosis is the process by which gametes (sperm and eggs) are produced. It involves two rounds of division (meiosis I and meiosis II) and results in the halving of the chromosome number.

In humans, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (23 pairs). After meiosis, the resultant gametes (sperm or eggs) will have half of the chromosome number, which is 23 chromosomes.

This halving of chromosomes is critical because when a sperm and an egg combine during fertilization, the 46 chromosomes (23 from the sperm and 23 from the egg) combine to form a zygote with the full set of chromosomes (46 total).

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. 46 chromosomes:

This is the chromosome number in a somatic (body) cell, not a gamete. The parent cell starts with 46 chromosomes, but meiosis reduces this number by half.

B. 14 chromosomes:

This is not the correct number of chromosomes for human gametes. Humans have 46 chromosomes, and after meiosis, each gamete will have 23 chromosomes, not 14.

D. 92 chromosomes:

This is the chromosome number after the DNA has been replicated before meiosis, but 92 chromosomes are not present in the final gametes. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number to 23 in gametes, not 92.


2.

What happens to the lungs if intrapleural pressure equals or increases above atmospheric pressure?

  • Inhalation

  • Overinflation

  • Burst

  • Collapse

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Collapse

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

D. Collapse

Under normal conditions, the intrapleural pressure (the pressure within the pleural cavity between the lungs and the chest wall) is slightly lower than atmospheric pressure. This negative pressure is crucial because it helps keep the lungs expanded by creating a suction effect that holds the lungs against the inner chest wall.

If the intrapleural pressure rises to equal or exceed atmospheric pressure
, this suction is lost, and the lungs will recoil and collapse. This condition is known as pneumothorax. It can occur due to trauma (such as a punctured chest wall or ruptured alveoli), allowing air to enter the pleural space and disrupting the pressure balance.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Inhalation


Inhalation occurs when intrapleural pressure drops further below atmospheric pressure, allowing the lungs to expand and air to flow in. If intrapleural pressure increases to match or exceed atmospheric pressure, inhalation becomes impossible, not more effective.

B. Overinflation


Overinflation of the lungs happens when there's excessive air trapped inside, such as in conditions like emphysema. However, if intrapleural pressure equals or exceeds atmospheric pressure, it would oppose lung inflation, not promote it. Overinflation is not the outcome in this case.

C. Burst


Lungs do not burst from increased intrapleural pressure. Instead, they recoil inward and collapse due to the loss of the negative pressure keeping them expanded. Bursting would require excessive internal pressure, not an increase in surrounding pressure.


3.

Which hormone has a direct effect on blood pressure by promoting water retention by the kidneys?

  • ADH

  • Oxytocin

  • Testosterone

  • FSH

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. ADH

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

ADH stands for antidiuretic hormone, also known as vasopressin. ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and stored and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It has a direct effect on blood pressure by promoting water retention by the kidneys. When ADH is released, it signals the kidneys to reabsorb more water back into the bloodstream, rather than excreting it as urine. This increases blood volume, which in turn raises blood pressure. ADH also causes vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), which further contributes to elevating blood pressure.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Oxytocin

Oxytocin is incorrect because its primary functions are related to uterine contractions during childbirth and milk ejection during breastfeeding. It does not have a direct role in regulating blood pressure or promoting water retention by the kidneys.

C. Testosterone

Testosterone is incorrect because it is mainly involved in male secondary sex characteristics, muscle and bone mass development, and reproductive functions. It does not directly regulate blood pressure through water retention by the kidneys, although high levels of testosterone can have indirect cardiovascular effects.

D. FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone)

FSH is incorrect because it is involved in reproductive processes. In females, it stimulates ovarian follicle development, and in males, it promotes sperm production. FSH does not have a role in regulating blood pressure or fluid balance.


4.

Absorption is best described as the:

  • Elimination of feces and some metabolic wastes

  • Passage of foods and liquids from one digestive organ to the next

  • Movement of food particles through the wall of the small intestine

  • Reactions that break chemical bonds of food particles

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Movement of food particles through the wall of the small intestine

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

C. Movement of food particles through the wall of the small intestine

Absorption is the process by which nutrients from digested food pass through the epithelial lining of the small intestine into the bloodstream or lymphatic system. This is a critical function of the digestive system that allows nutrients like amino acids, simple sugars, fatty acids, vitamins, and minerals to be transported to the body’s cells for use in growth, repair, and energy.

The small intestine
, especially the jejunum and ileum, is the primary site for this process. Its inner surface is lined with villi and microvilli, which increase the surface area to maximize absorption.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Elimination of feces and some metabolic wastes


This describes defecation, not absorption. It refers to the removal of undigested food and waste products from the body, which occurs at the end of the digestive process, not during absorption.

B. Passage of foods and liquids from one digestive organ to the next


This describes propulsion, specifically peristalsis, which moves food along the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. While essential to digestion, it does not involve the uptake of nutrients into the bloodstream.

D. Reactions that break chemical bonds of food particles


This describes digestion, particularly chemical digestion, where enzymes break down complex molecules into absorbable units. Absorption, in contrast, is the process after digestion, where these smaller molecules are taken into the body.


5.

The calcaneus is located in what part of the body?

  • Mouth

  • Hand

  • Head

  • Foot

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Foot

Explanation:

The calcaneus is the largest bone in the foot and forms the heel. It is a tarsal bone and plays a vital role in weight-bearing and walking by providing support and structure for the foot. It also serves as the attachment point for the Achilles tendon.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Mouth

The mouth contains bones such as the mandible and maxilla, but not the calcaneus. The calcaneus is not involved in oral structure or function.

Hand

Bones in the hand include carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges—not the calcaneus. The calcaneus is part of the foot, not the upper limb.

Head

The bones of the head include the skull bones (like the frontal, parietal, and occipital bones), but the calcaneus has no connection to the head or cranial structures.


6.

A client has a large pituitary tumor. The nurse knows that this tumor exists in which part of the body?

  • Head

  • Trunk

  • Neck

  • Abdomen

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Head

Explanation:

The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain, within a bony structure called the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. It is part of the endocrine system and regulates numerous hormones. A pituitary tumor, therefore, is found within the cranial cavity—specifically in the head.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Trunk

The trunk refers to the central part of the body, including the chest and abdomen. The pituitary gland is not located in the trunk, so a tumor here would not affect that gland.

Neck

The thyroid and parathyroid glands are located in the neck, not the pituitary gland. A tumor in the neck area would not be considered a pituitary tumor.

Abdomen

The abdominal cavity houses organs such as the liver, stomach, intestines, and kidneys, but not the pituitary gland. Therefore, a pituitary tumor would not be found here.


7.

Glucagon operates under:

  • Neural stimulation

  • Hormonal stimulation

  • Neurohormonal stimulation

  • Humoral stimulation

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Humoral stimulation

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

D. Humoral stimulation

Glucagon secretion is regulated through humoral stimulation, which refers to changes in the composition of the blood—particularly blood glucose levels. When blood glucose drops (hypoglycemia), the alpha cells of the pancreas detect this decrease and respond by secreting glucagon. Glucagon then stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose (glycogenolysis) and to form new glucose (gluconeogenesis), both of which raise blood glucose levels. This process is a classic example of humoral regulation, where the chemical makeup of body fluids directly triggers hormone release.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Neural stimulation

Neural stimulation involves direct innervation by nerves, such as sympathetic stimulation triggering the adrenal medulla to release epinephrine. Glucagon release is not primarily triggered this way.

B. Hormonal stimulation


This involves one hormone triggering the release of another, like ACTH stimulating cortisol release. Glucagon is not secreted in response to another hormone.

C. Neurohormonal stimulation


This refers to hormones released by neurons into the bloodstream (e.g., oxytocin from the posterior pituitary). Glucagon is secreted by endocrine cells, not neurosecretory cells.


8.

What do ceruminous glands secrete?

  • Ear wax

  • Keratin

  • Oily sebum

  • Mucus

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Ear wax

Explanation:

Ceruminous glands are modified apocrine sweat glands located in the external auditory canal. They secrete cerumen, commonly known as earwax. Cerumen protects the ear canal by trapping dust and microorganisms, preventing infection, and providing lubrication. It also has antibacterial properties and helps maintain ear health.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Keratin

Keratin is a structural protein produced by keratinocytes in the skin, hair, and nails. Ceruminous glands do not produce keratin.

Oily sebum

Sebum is secreted by sebaceous glands, not ceruminous glands. Though both are part of the integumentary system, they serve different purposes and are located in different regions.

Mucus

Mucus is secreted by mucous membranes in areas like the respiratory and digestive tracts. Ceruminous glands do not produce mucus.


9.

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract?

  • Larynx

  • Trachea

  • Pharynx

  • Nose

Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Trachea

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

B. Trachea

The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is part of the lower respiratory tract, not the upper respiratory tract. It begins at the larynx and extends down into the chest, where it branches into the left and right bronchi leading to the lungs. The trachea is responsible for carrying air from the upper respiratory structures into the lungs, but it is anatomically part of the lower respiratory tract.

Why the Other Options Are Correct:

A. Larynx


The larynx (voice box) is located at the junction of the pharynx and the trachea and is considered part of the upper respiratory tract. It plays a critical role in voice production, as well as protecting the trachea from food aspiration through the epiglottis.

C. Pharynx


The pharynx, also known as the throat, is part of the upper respiratory tract. It connects the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx and esophagus. It serves as a passageway for both air (to the lungs) and food (to the esophagus).

D. Nose


The nose is the entry point for air and is also part of the upper respiratory tract. It filters, warms, and humidifies the air before it enters the lungs, and it plays an important role in the sense of smell.


10.

In the production of energy for cells, the ultimate product of carbohydrate metabolism is:

  • Radiation

  • Glucose

  • ATP

  • None of these

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. ATP

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

C. ATP

The ultimate product of carbohydrate metabolism is ATP (adenosine triphosphate). Carbohydrates, particularly glucose, are broken down through a series of metabolic processes like glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. This breakdown releases energy, which is used to produce ATP. ATP is the primary energy currency of the cell, used to power a wide variety of cellular processes, including muscle contraction, protein synthesis, and active transport across cell membranes.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Radiation

Radiation is not a product of carbohydrate metabolism. Carbohydrate metabolism involves biochemical processes that produce energy, not radiation.

B. Glucose


While glucose is the starting point for carbohydrate metabolism, it is not the ultimate product. Glucose is broken down into pyruvate in glycolysis, and eventually, through other metabolic pathways, it contributes to the production of ATP. Therefore, glucose is a precursor, not the final product.

D. None of these


This option is incorrect because ATP is indeed the final product of carbohydrate metabolism.


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