N3661 Care of the Adult SU25
Access The Exact Questions for N3661 Care of the Adult SU25
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 Questions
The nurse is caring for a client with a large venous ulcer on the leg. What intervention should the nurse implement to promote healing and prevent infection
-
Abstain from wearing graduated compression stockings
-
Apply an antibiotic ointment on the surrounding skin with each dressing change
-
Apply a clean occlusive dressing once daily and whenever soiled
-
Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet
Explanation
Correct Answer D: Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet
Explanation:
Nutritional support is essential for wound healing. A high-calorie, high-protein diet provides the energy and building blocks necessary for tissue repair, immune function, and regeneration of skin. This is especially important in clients with chronic wounds like venous ulcers, where healing is prolonged and metabolic demands are increased.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Abstain from wearing graduated compression stockings
This is incorrect. Compression therapy is a cornerstone of venous ulcer management because it helps improve venous return and reduce edema. Clients should wear compression stockings unless contraindicated.
B. Apply an antibiotic ointment on the surrounding skin with each dressing change
Routine use of antibiotic ointments on intact skin is not recommended. It can cause irritation or lead to antibiotic resistance. Topical antibiotics should only be used when there is a confirmed infection.
C. Apply a clean occlusive dressing once daily and whenever soiled
While proper dressing is important, occlusive dressings are not always appropriate for venous ulcers. The choice of dressing depends on the wound characteristics. Also, over-occlusion can promote infection if not properly managed.
A nurse observes mild hand tremors in a client who has diabetes mellitus. What action should the nurse take after obtaining a glucose meter reading of 60 mg/dL
-
Administer 15 g of carbohydrates
-
Retest the blood glucose level
-
Administer IV dextrose
-
Administer 1 mg of glucagon IM
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Administer 15 g of carbohydrates
Explanation:
A blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL indicates mild hypoglycemia, especially in a client with symptoms like hand tremors. The appropriate first action is to follow the "15-15 rule": give 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates (such as glucose tablets, juice, or regular soda), then recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes. This is a safe and effective first-line intervention.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Retest the blood glucose level
Retesting immediately is unnecessary after a confirmed reading and observed symptoms. Treatment should not be delayed.
C. Administer IV dextrose
IV dextrose is reserved for severe hypoglycemia or if the patient is unconscious or unable to swallow. It’s not indicated in this mild, symptomatic case.
D. Administer 1 mg of glucagon IM
Glucagon is also reserved for severe hypoglycemia, especially when IV access is unavailable and the client is unconscious or seizing. It’s not appropriate for mild cases.
The nurse is preparing a preoperative teaching plan about using an incentive spirometer. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan
-
The best results are achieved when sitting up or with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees
-
After maximum inspiration, hold the breath for 20 seconds and exhale
-
Keep a loose seal between the lips and the mouthpiece
-
Inhale as rapidly as possible.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: The best results are achieved when sitting up or with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees.
Explanation:
The most effective use of an incentive spirometer occurs when the client is in an upright position, such as sitting up or with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees. This allows for maximum lung expansion, which helps prevent postoperative complications like atelectasis or pneumonia.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. After maximum inspiration, hold the breath for 20 seconds and exhale.
Clients should hold their breath for about 3 to 5 seconds, not 20 seconds. Holding the breath too long may cause dizziness or discomfort.
C. Keep a loose seal between the lips and the mouthpiece.
The client should form a tight seal around the mouthpiece to ensure that the correct volume of air is drawn in and measured accurately.
D. Inhale as rapidly as possible.
The goal is to inhale slowly and deeply, not rapidly, to maximize lung expansion and avoid hyperventilation.
A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client who is to undergo an open bowel resection at 1300 next week. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching
-
I understand what risks I can expect with this surgery.
-
I can eat solid food right when I wake up from anesthesia
-
I will take time to relax if I get nervous the night before surgery.
-
I will have a glass of juice the morning of my surgery.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: I can eat solid food right when I wake up from anesthesia.
Explanation:
After abdominal surgery like an open bowel resection, clients are not permitted to eat solid food immediately post-op. Return to oral intake depends on bowel function recovery (e.g., presence of bowel sounds, passing gas). Starting solid foods too early can risk nausea, vomiting, or ileus.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. I understand what risks I can expect with this surgery.
This shows appropriate understanding of informed consent and surgical risks.
C. I will take time to relax if I get nervous the night before surgery.
This reflects good emotional preparation and coping, which is encouraged preoperatively.
D. I will have a glass of juice the morning of my surgery.
Clear liquids may be allowed up to 2 hours before surgery, depending on the surgeon’s and facility’s protocol. However, this may still be acceptable if cleared by the provider.
A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes. The client's medication administration record includes the administration of Humulin-R (regular insulin or Novolin-R) three times daily. Knowing that the client's lunch tray will arrive at 11:45 AM, when should the nurse administer the insulin
-
11:45 AM
-
10:45 AM
-
11:50 AM
-
11:30 AM
Explanation
Correct Answer D: 11:30 AM
Explanation:
Regular insulin (Humulin-R or Novolin-R) is a short-acting insulin with an onset of action of 30 to 60 minutes. To ensure that the insulin starts working as the food is absorbed, it should be administered approximately 30 minutes before meals. Therefore, if lunch arrives at 11:45 AM, the ideal time to administer the insulin is 11:30 AM.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. 11:45 AM
This is too late. The insulin would not have started working by the time the food is absorbed, increasing the risk of post-meal hyperglycemia.
B. 10:45 AM
This is too early. The insulin may peak before the meal is consumed, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia.
C. 11:50 AM
This is after the meal has arrived. Like option A, it delays the insulin’s effect and may result in poor postprandial glucose control.
The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client with Raynaud's Disease. Which teaching point would the nurse include in the teaching plan
-
Use nail polish to protect nail beds from injury
-
Stop smoking because it causes cutaneous vasospasm
-
Always wear warm clothing even in warm climates to prevent vasoconstriction
-
Wear gloves for all activities involving use of both hands
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Stop smoking because it causes cutaneous vasospasm
Explanation:
Smoking is a major risk factor in Raynaud's disease because nicotine causes vasoconstriction, which can worsen the frequency and severity of vasospastic episodes. Therefore, smoking cessation is a critical component of discharge teaching. Educating the client on avoiding tobacco can significantly improve blood flow and reduce symptoms.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Use nail polish to protect nail beds from injury
Using nail polish does not protect the nail beds from injury or improve circulation. In fact, it can hide signs of poor perfusion or cyanosis in the nail bed, which are important clinical indicators in Raynaud’s.
C. Always wear warm clothing even in warm climates to prevent vasoconstriction
While it's important to stay warm, wearing warm clothing in warm climates is unnecessary and could lead to overheating. The key is to keep extremities warm, especially in cold environments, rather than overdressing inappropriately.
D. Wear gloves for all activities involving use of both hands
Gloves are helpful in cold weather to prevent attacks, but wearing gloves for all hand-related activities is impractical and unnecessary. Gloves should be used when exposed to cold or during activities that could provoke symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis who has been receiving a heparin drip for one week. The client's condition is improving. Two days ago, the primary care provider also prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The client inquires about receiving both heparin and warfarin simultaneously. Which of the following responses is appropriate
-
Your provider must have forgotten that you were already taking heparin. I’ll remind her.
-
Only one of these medications is being given to treat your deep vein thrombosis.
-
Warfarin takes three to four days to achieve therapeutic anticoagulant effects. Heparin will be discontinued soon.
-
Your blood was so thick that two anticoagulants were needed
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Warfarin takes three to four days to achieve therapeutic anticoagulant effects. Heparin will be discontinued soon.
Explanation:
Warfarin has a delayed onset of action, typically taking 3–5 days to reach a therapeutic INR. During this period, heparin is continued to ensure the client remains anticoagulated and protected against clot progression. Once warfarin reaches a therapeutic level (INR 2.0–3.0), heparin can safely be discontinued.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Your provider must have forgotten that you were already taking heparin. I’ll remind her.
This is inappropriate and undermines the provider’s judgment. The concurrent use of heparin and warfarin is standard practice during the transition period.
B. Only one of these medications is being given to treat your deep vein thrombosis.
Incorrect. Both medications are being used temporarily together for DVT treatment, each playing a role at different stages of anticoagulation therapy.
D. Your blood was so thick that two anticoagulants were needed.
This is misleading and medically inaccurate. The reason for dual therapy is related to onset timing, not blood viscosity.
A nurse is reviewing the diagnostic test results of an older adult female client preoperatively for a knee arthroplasty. Which of the following results should the nurse notify the surgeon Hematocrit reference range: 37–47%.
WBC count reference range: 5,000 to 10,000/mm³
Creatinine reference range: 0.5 to 1.2 mg/dL
Potassium reference range: 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L
-
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
-
WBC count 20,000/mm³
-
Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
-
Hematocrit 40%
Explanation
Correct Answer B: WBC count 20,000/mm³
Explanation:
A WBC count of 20,000/mm³ is well above the normal range (5,000–10,000/mm³) and may indicate the presence of an active infection or significant inflammation. This is a critical preoperative finding that could increase the risk of surgical complications, including delayed healing or sepsis. The surgeon must be notified immediately to evaluate the client and determine if the surgery should be postponed.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
This value is within the normal reference range (0.5–1.2 mg/dL) and does not suggest renal impairment. No action is needed.
C. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
This is within the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and is safe for surgery.
D. Hematocrit 40%
Also within the normal female range (37–47%), indicating adequate red blood cell levels. No need to notify the provider.
The client is admitted to the medical unit with suspected acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor to confirm this diagnosis
-
Creatinine and BUN
-
Troponin and CK-MB
-
Serum bilirubin and calcium
-
Serum amylase and lipase
Explanation
Correct Answer D: Serum amylase and lipase
Explanation:
Serum amylase and lipase are the primary diagnostic enzymes used to confirm acute pancreatitis. These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when the pancreas becomes inflamed or injured. Lipase is more specific to pancreatitis and tends to remain elevated longer than amylase.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Creatinine and BUN
These measure kidney function, not pancreatic inflammation. They may be monitored for complications but are not diagnostic of pancreatitis.
B. Troponin and CK-MB
These are cardiac markers used to diagnose myocardial infarction, not pancreatitis.
C. Serum bilirubin and calcium
While bilirubin may be elevated if pancreatitis is related to biliary obstruction and calcium may be low in severe cases, these are supportive findings, not confirmatory.
A nurse is caring for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, and their glucose levels are rising. Which of the following would indicate the client is in a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
-
Glucose level of 400 mg/dL
-
Hypertension
-
Serum osmolarity of 350 mOsm/L
-
Ketosis
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Serum osmolarity of 350 mOsm/L
Explanation:
A serum osmolarity of 350 mOsm/L is a key diagnostic indicator of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS), a serious complication of type 2 diabetes. HHS is characterized by extremely high blood glucose, severe dehydration, and elevated serum osmolarity, typically >320 mOsm/L, without significant ketosis. It often develops slowly and may be triggered by infection or illness.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Glucose level of 400 mg/dL
While elevated, this level alone is not high enough to confirm HHS, which often presents with glucose levels over 600 mg/dL.
B. Hypertension
Hypertension is not a defining feature of HHS. Clients are often hypotensive due to dehydration.
D. Ketosis
Ketosis is absent or minimal in HHS, which distinguishes it from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), where ketosis is a hallmark feature.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .
Frequently Asked Question
The package offers over 150 practice questions tailored specifically for the N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 Exam 4. These questions cover key nursing topics such as peripheral vascular conditions, anticoagulant therapy, peripheral artery disease (PAD), venous ulcers, and patient education. Each question comes with clear, step-by-step explanations to help deepen your understanding.
The questions are designed to closely reflect the format and content of the real N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 exam. Many are based on actual exam questions, providing you with highly realistic practice to build clinical judgment and confidence.
Access to the complete question bank and explanations costs $30 for a 30-day unlimited access subscription.
Visit the N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 product page on ULOSCA, click “Subscribe Now”, complete your payment, and immediately gain full access to all practice questions and explanations.
No. This is a one-time payment for 30-day access. Your subscription will not auto-renew, and you will only be charged again if you decide to resubscribe.
Absolutely. The explanations and questions are structured to support both new and experienced nursing students, helping build your exam readiness and clinical knowledge efficiently.