N3661 Care of the Adult SU25
Access The Exact Questions for N3661 Care of the Adult SU25
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 Questions
A 37-year-old client presents at the emergency department (ED), reporting nausea, vomiting, and severe abdominal pain. The client's abdomen is rigid, and there is bruising to the client's flank. The client's spouse states that the client was on a drinking binge for the past two days. The ED nurse should assist in assessing the client for what health problem
-
COPD
-
Severe pancreatitis with possible peritonitis
-
GERD
-
Diabetes
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Severe pancreatitis with possible peritonitis
Explanation:
The client’s symptoms — severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, nausea/vomiting, flank bruising (Grey-Turner’s sign), and recent alcohol binge — strongly indicate acute pancreatitis, potentially complicated by peritonitis. Alcohol abuse is a common cause of pancreatitis, and the presence of a rigid abdomen and ecchymosis suggests internal bleeding or peritoneal inflammation.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. COPD
This is a chronic lung disease and not related to the described gastrointestinal and abdominal findings.
C. GERD
GERD typically causes heartburn and reflux, not severe abdominal pain, rigidity, or bruising.
D. Diabetes
While diabetes can be associated with pancreatitis, it does not present acutely with these symptoms. The findings here point to an acute abdominal condition, not hyperglycemia or diabetic complications.
Four hours after surgery, the blood glucose level of a client who has type 1 diabetes is elevated. Which of the following actions would the nurse expect
-
Administer supplemental doses of regular insulin according to the sliding scale.
-
Decrease the rate of intravenous infusion.
-
Administer an oral hypoglycemic.
-
Institute urine glucose monitoring.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Administer supplemental doses of regular insulin according to the sliding scale.
Explanation:
After surgery, stress-related hormone release (e.g., cortisol, epinephrine) can cause hyperglycemia, especially in clients with type 1 diabetes. The nurse should expect to administer regular insulin as a corrective (sliding scale) dose to bring the blood glucose back within the desired range. This is a standard practice in the post-operative period.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Decrease the rate of intravenous infusion
This action is inappropriate unless the IV solution contains dextrose and is contributing to hyperglycemia. The primary response should be to treat the elevated glucose with insulin.
C. Administer an oral hypoglycemic
Oral hypoglycemics are not used in type 1 diabetes, and they are not appropriate in the immediate post-op period, especially if the client is NPO or recovering from anesthesia.
D. Institute urine glucose monitoring
Urine glucose testing is outdated and unreliable. Blood glucose monitoring is the standard of care for real-time and accurate glucose management.
A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis who has been receiving a heparin drip for one week. The client's condition is improving. Two days ago, the primary care provider also prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The client inquires about receiving both heparin and warfarin simultaneously. Which of the following responses is appropriate
-
Your provider must have forgotten that you were already taking heparin. I’ll remind her.
-
Only one of these medications is being given to treat your deep vein thrombosis.
-
Warfarin takes three to four days to achieve therapeutic anticoagulant effects. Heparin will be discontinued soon.
-
Your blood was so thick that two anticoagulants were needed
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Warfarin takes three to four days to achieve therapeutic anticoagulant effects. Heparin will be discontinued soon.
Explanation:
Warfarin has a delayed onset of action, typically taking 3–5 days to reach a therapeutic INR. During this period, heparin is continued to ensure the client remains anticoagulated and protected against clot progression. Once warfarin reaches a therapeutic level (INR 2.0–3.0), heparin can safely be discontinued.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Your provider must have forgotten that you were already taking heparin. I’ll remind her.
This is inappropriate and undermines the provider’s judgment. The concurrent use of heparin and warfarin is standard practice during the transition period.
B. Only one of these medications is being given to treat your deep vein thrombosis.
Incorrect. Both medications are being used temporarily together for DVT treatment, each playing a role at different stages of anticoagulation therapy.
D. Your blood was so thick that two anticoagulants were needed.
This is misleading and medically inaccurate. The reason for dual therapy is related to onset timing, not blood viscosity.
Which assessment finding is expected for a client with a fluid volume deficit
-
Acute weight gain
-
Orthostatic hypotension and flattened neck veins
-
Dyspnea and respiratory crackles
-
Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Orthostatic hypotension and flattened neck veins
Explanation:
Fluid volume deficit (hypovolemia) leads to decreased circulating blood volume, which often presents as orthostatic hypotension, flat neck veins, dry mucous membranes, and poor skin turgor. These signs reflect the body’s reduced perfusion and volume.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Acute weight gain
This is a sign of fluid volume excess, not deficit.
C. Dyspnea and respiratory crackles
These are signs of pulmonary congestion associated with fluid overload, not volume deficit.
D. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
While tachycardia (increased pulse) is common in fluid deficit, blood pressure typically decreases, especially in upright positions, due to reduced volume.
A nurse observes mild hand tremors in a client who has diabetes mellitus. What action should the nurse take after obtaining a glucose meter reading of 60 mg/dL
-
Administer 15 g of carbohydrates
-
Retest the blood glucose level
-
Administer IV dextrose
-
Administer 1 mg of glucagon IM
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Administer 15 g of carbohydrates
Explanation:
A blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL indicates mild hypoglycemia, especially in a client with symptoms like hand tremors. The appropriate first action is to follow the "15-15 rule": give 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates (such as glucose tablets, juice, or regular soda), then recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes. This is a safe and effective first-line intervention.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Retest the blood glucose level
Retesting immediately is unnecessary after a confirmed reading and observed symptoms. Treatment should not be delayed.
C. Administer IV dextrose
IV dextrose is reserved for severe hypoglycemia or if the patient is unconscious or unable to swallow. It’s not indicated in this mild, symptomatic case.
D. Administer 1 mg of glucagon IM
Glucagon is also reserved for severe hypoglycemia, especially when IV access is unavailable and the client is unconscious or seizing. It’s not appropriate for mild cases.
A nurse is caring for a client who is two hours postoperative after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The client is complaining of pain in the right shoulder. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement
-
Discourage encourage ambulation.
-
Apply a heating pad to the shoulder for 15 to 20 minutes.
-
Administer morphine sulfate intravenously after diluting with saline.
-
Contact the surgeon for an order to x-ray the right shoulder.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Apply a heating pad to the shoulder for 15 to 20 minutes.
Explanation:
Right shoulder pain after laparoscopic cholecystectomy is common due to diaphragmatic irritation from retained carbon dioxide gas used during insufflation. Applying a heating pad to the area promotes comfort by relaxing muscles and encouraging gas reabsorption.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Discourage encourage ambulation.
This is contradictory and incorrect. The nurse should encourage ambulation, as it helps relieve gas pain and prevents postoperative complications.
C. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously after diluting with saline.
While opioids may be used if pain is severe, non-pharmacologic measures like heat and ambulation should be tried first for gas-related pain.
D. Contact the surgeon for an order to x-ray the right shoulder.
This is unnecessary. Referred shoulder pain from CO₂ is a well-known and expected postoperative finding—not typically a sign of joint injury.
A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client who is to undergo an open bowel resection at 1300 next week. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching
-
I understand what risks I can expect with this surgery.
-
I can eat solid food right when I wake up from anesthesia
-
I will take time to relax if I get nervous the night before surgery.
-
I will have a glass of juice the morning of my surgery.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: I can eat solid food right when I wake up from anesthesia.
Explanation:
After abdominal surgery like an open bowel resection, clients are not permitted to eat solid food immediately post-op. Return to oral intake depends on bowel function recovery (e.g., presence of bowel sounds, passing gas). Starting solid foods too early can risk nausea, vomiting, or ileus.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. I understand what risks I can expect with this surgery.
This shows appropriate understanding of informed consent and surgical risks.
C. I will take time to relax if I get nervous the night before surgery.
This reflects good emotional preparation and coping, which is encouraged preoperatively.
D. I will have a glass of juice the morning of my surgery.
Clear liquids may be allowed up to 2 hours before surgery, depending on the surgeon’s and facility’s protocol. However, this may still be acceptable if cleared by the provider.
A nurse provides preoperative teaching by demonstrating diaphragmatic breathing to a client scheduled for surgery in the morning. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the demonstration
-
Exhale forcefully through the nose.
-
Inhale slowly and evenly through her nose.
-
Hold her breath for at least 10 seconds.
-
Place her hands on the sides of her rib cage.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Inhale slowly and evenly through her nose.
Explanation:
When performing diaphragmatic breathing, the client should be instructed to inhale slowly and evenly through the nose, allowing the diaphragm to expand the lungs effectively. This helps increase lung capacity, improves oxygenation, and is commonly used in preoperative and postoperative respiratory care.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Exhale forcefully through the nose
Exhalation should be slow and controlled, typically through the mouth, not forceful or through the nose.
C. Hold her breath for at least 10 seconds
A brief pause (2–3 seconds) may be included, but holding for 10 seconds is excessive and may cause discomfort or dizziness.
D. Place her hands on the sides of her rib cage
Hands should be placed on the abdomen, not the rib cage, to feel the rise and fall of the diaphragm during breathing.
. A nurse is interviewing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following factors should the nurse anticipate finding in the client's history
-
Gallstones
-
Diabetes mellitus
-
Hypolipidemia
-
COPD
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Gallstones
Explanation:
Gallstones are one of the most common causes of acute pancreatitis. They can block the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation of the pancreas. The nurse should anticipate a history of gallbladder disease or biliary tract issues in clients presenting with pancreatitis.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Diabetes mellitus
While diabetes can be associated with chronic pancreatitis or develop as a complication of pancreatic damage, it is not a primary cause of acute pancreatitis.
C. Hypolipidemia
Hyperlipidemia, not hypolipidemia, is a known risk factor for pancreatitis. Elevated triglycerides can trigger pancreatic inflammation.
D. COPD
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not associated with the development of pancreatitis. It is a respiratory condition unrelated to pancreatic function.
A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of hypoglycemia
-
Vomiting
-
Fruity odor on the client's breath
-
Cool, clammy skin
-
Bradycardia
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Cool, clammy skin
Explanation:
Cool, clammy skin is a classic sign of hypoglycemia. As blood glucose drops, the body activates the sympathetic nervous system, causing symptoms like sweating, shakiness, irritability, and pale, clammy skin. These signs indicate the need for immediate carbohydrate intake.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Vomiting
While vomiting can occur with many conditions, it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia and diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), not hypoglycemia.
B. Fruity odor on the client's breath
A fruity or acetone-like odor is a hallmark of DKA, a complication of severe hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.
D. Bradycardia
Bradycardia is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Tachycardia is more common due to the stress response triggered by low blood sugar.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .
Frequently Asked Question
The package offers over 150 practice questions tailored specifically for the N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 Exam 4. These questions cover key nursing topics such as peripheral vascular conditions, anticoagulant therapy, peripheral artery disease (PAD), venous ulcers, and patient education. Each question comes with clear, step-by-step explanations to help deepen your understanding.
The questions are designed to closely reflect the format and content of the real N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 exam. Many are based on actual exam questions, providing you with highly realistic practice to build clinical judgment and confidence.
Access to the complete question bank and explanations costs $30 for a 30-day unlimited access subscription.
Visit the N3661 Care of the Adult SU25 product page on ULOSCA, click “Subscribe Now”, complete your payment, and immediately gain full access to all practice questions and explanations.
No. This is a one-time payment for 30-day access. Your subscription will not auto-renew, and you will only be charged again if you decide to resubscribe.
Absolutely. The explanations and questions are structured to support both new and experienced nursing students, helping build your exam readiness and clinical knowledge efficiently.