C952 Computer Architecture
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Free C952 Computer Architecture Questions
Which of the following types of ports would you typically find on the rear I/O panel of a motherboard?
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HDMI ports
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SATA ports
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USB ports
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PCIe slots
Explanation
Explanation:
The rear I/O panel of a motherboard provides connectors for external devices and peripherals. Common ports include USB ports for connecting keyboards, mice, and external storage, and HDMI or other video outputs for connecting displays. SATA ports, however, are internal connectors used to attach storage drives inside the case, and PCIe slots are expansion slots on the motherboard for adding graphics cards or other expansion cards. Therefore, USB ports are a typical feature of the rear I/O panel, facilitating user connectivity.
Correct Answer:
USB ports
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
HDMI ports is incorrect because while HDMI ports may also appear on the rear I/O, they are primarily for video output and are not as universally used for general external peripheral connectivity as USB ports.
SATA ports is incorrect because SATA ports are internal connectors used for connecting hard drives and SSDs inside the computer case, not on the rear panel for external devices.
PCIe slots is incorrect because PCIe slots are located on the motherboard itself for expansion cards and are not part of the rear I/O panel accessible for external connections.
What is used in virtual memory to increase performance?
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Page size buffer
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Buffer
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Sparse memory
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Demand paging
Explanation
Explanation:
Demand paging is a technique used in virtual memory systems to improve performance by loading pages into physical memory only when they are needed, rather than loading the entire program at once. This reduces the amount of physical memory required and allows the system to run larger programs efficiently. By bringing in only the required pages on demand, the system avoids unnecessary memory access and minimizes page faults, improving overall performance. Demand paging is a cornerstone of modern virtual memory management, enabling more efficient use of RAM.
Correct Answer:
Demand paging
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Page size buffer is incorrect because there is no standard virtual memory concept specifically called a page size buffer. While page size affects memory management, it is not a technique used to increase performance in the way demand paging is.
Buffer is incorrect because a generic buffer does not refer to the controlled loading of memory pages from secondary storage. Buffers are used in I/O operations and do not implement virtual memory performance optimization.
Sparse memory is incorrect because sparse memory refers to memory-efficient storage of mostly empty data structures, not to the management of virtual memory performance. It does not directly improve virtual memory access like demand paging does.
Which of the following sums up DDR3 memory technology correctly?
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It has 288 pins and offers higher data rates than DDR2.
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It operates at a single data rate per clock cycle, similar to DDR2
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It features 240 pins and provides improved latency and power efficiency compared to DDR2.
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It is primarily used in mobile devices and was introduced in the early 2000s
Explanation
Explanation:
DDR3 memory features 240 pins and provides several improvements over DDR2, including higher data transfer rates, lower power consumption, and improved latency. DDR3 achieves these improvements by operating at lower voltages and using enhanced signaling techniques. This makes DDR3 both faster and more energy-efficient compared to DDR2, which helps improve overall system performance while reducing power usage in desktop and server environments.
Correct Answer:
It features 240 pins and provides improved latency and power efficiency compared to DDR2.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
It has 288 pins and offers higher data rates than DDR2 is incorrect because 288 pins are associated with DDR4 memory, not DDR3.
It operates at a single data rate per clock cycle, similar to DDR2 is incorrect because DDR3 is a double data rate memory that transfers data on both the rising and falling edges of the clock cycle, like DDR2, but with higher performance and efficiency.
It is primarily used in mobile devices and was introduced in the early 2000s is incorrect because DDR3 is used broadly in desktops, servers, and some laptops; it was introduced later, around 2007, not in the early 2000s.
Which ARM instruction is optimized for dividing two unsigned integers?
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CBZ R1, Exit
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UDIV M0, R1, R2
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SDIV R1, R2, M0
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SUB R1, R1, 1
Explanation
Explanation:
In ARM architecture, the UDIV instruction is specifically designed to perform division between two unsigned integers. It takes two source registers, divides the first by the second, and stores the result in a destination register. This instruction provides an efficient, hardware-level mechanism for integer division without requiring multiple subtraction or loop operations, making it optimized for performance when dividing unsigned values.
Correct Answer:
UDIV M0, R1, R2
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
CBZ R1, Exit is incorrect because CBZ (Compare and Branch on Zero) is a conditional branch instruction and does not perform arithmetic operations such as division.
SDIV R1, R2, M0 is incorrect because SDIV is used for signed integer division, not unsigned division, and thus is not optimized for the scenario described.
SUB R1, R1, 1 is incorrect because SUB performs subtraction, not division, and cannot be used to directly divide two numbers.
Which factor in parallel processing is not bound by a law?
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Memory Hierarchy
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Weak Scaling
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Application Hierarchy
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Strong Scaling
Explanation
Explanation:
In parallel processing, factors like weak scaling and strong scaling are bound by formal laws such as Amdahl’s Law and Gustafson’s Law, which describe the limits of performance improvement when increasing the number of processors. Memory hierarchy affects performance based on hardware design and access latency, which is also constrained by physical and architectural principles. Application hierarchy, however, refers to the structure and organization of a program’s tasks and dependencies, which is not mathematically constrained by any formal law. It can be designed and modified freely to optimize parallel execution without being bound by specific scaling laws.
Correct Answer:
Application Hierarchy
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Memory Hierarchy is incorrect because memory hierarchy impacts performance in predictable ways and is constrained by physical memory latency and bandwidth, making it indirectly bound by performance considerations and empirical laws.
Weak Scaling is incorrect because weak scaling refers to increasing the problem size proportionally with the number of processors and is often analyzed using Gustafson’s Law, which sets theoretical bounds on expected speedup.
Strong Scaling is incorrect because strong scaling measures how performance improves as more processors are applied to a fixed-size problem, which is directly bounded by Amdahl’s Law.
Which processor should be selected to improve performance for executing the same instruction based on the average steps required?
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Processor 4
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Processor 3
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Processor 2
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Processor 1
Explanation
Explanation:
When evaluating processors based on executing the same instruction, the key factor is the average number of steps or clock cycles required per instruction. The processor that requires the fewest steps on average will complete instructions faster, improving performance regardless of clock frequency. Selecting the processor with the lowest average steps per instruction ensures that each instruction completes efficiently, optimizing overall program execution time.
Correct Answer:
Processor 2
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Processor 4 is incorrect if it requires more average steps per instruction, which would result in slower execution compared to a processor with fewer steps.
Processor 3 is incorrect because its higher average instruction steps mean it takes longer to complete the same instruction, reducing performance.
Processor 1 is incorrect if it requires more average steps than Processor 2; even with a high clock frequency, more steps per instruction can negate the potential speed advantage.
A CPU cooler fan speed is usually controlled by the operating system to compensate for increasing or decreasing CPU temperatures. What connector do you plug the cooler fan into on the motherboard?
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8 pin 12v CPU
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Case fan controller
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4 pin Molex
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CPU fan header
Explanation
Explanation:
The CPU fan header on the motherboard is specifically designed to power and control the CPU cooler fan. It allows the operating system or BIOS to adjust fan speed dynamically based on the processor temperature, ensuring efficient cooling while minimizing noise. This header provides both power and control signals to the fan, enabling features such as PWM (Pulse Width Modulation) for precise speed regulation.
Correct Answer:
CPU fan header
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
8 pin 12v CPU is incorrect because this connector is used for providing additional CPU power, not for controlling the fan.
Case fan controller is incorrect because it is meant for chassis or case fans, not the CPU cooler.
4 pin Molex is incorrect because Molex connectors provide constant power to devices without speed control; they cannot dynamically adjust CPU fan speed.
Which of the following is a very common interface type for modern hard drives in PCs today?
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SATA
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ASCII
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SCSI
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Serial
Explanation
Explanation:
SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) is the most common interface used for connecting modern hard drives and solid-state drives in personal computers. SATA provides fast data transfer rates, hot-swapping capabilities, and widespread compatibility with motherboards and storage devices. It has largely replaced older parallel ATA (PATA) interfaces due to its improved speed and simplified cabling.
Correct Answer:
SATA
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
ASCII is incorrect because ASCII is a character encoding standard, not a storage interface.
SCSI is incorrect because while SCSI was widely used in servers and high-performance storage systems, it is less common in modern consumer PCs.
Serial is incorrect because "Serial" alone is not a specific storage interface; SATA is a specific type of serial interface, while the term "serial" by itself is too generic.
What is the primary characteristic of SDR (Single Data Rate) memory in terms of data transfer?
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Transfers data twice per clock cycle
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Transfers data once per clock cycle
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Transfers data at a variable rate
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Transfers data continuously without a clock signal
Explanation
Explanation:
Single Data Rate (SDR) memory transfers data once per clock cycle, either on the rising or falling edge of the clock signal. This contrasts with Double Data Rate (DDR) memory, which transfers data on both the rising and falling edges of the clock, effectively doubling the data rate. SDR memory is an older technology that offers predictable, single-edge data transfer synchronized with the system clock.
Correct Answer:
Transfers data once per clock cycle
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Transfers data twice per clock cycle is incorrect because that describes DDR memory, not SDR memory.
Transfers data at a variable rate is incorrect because SDR memory operates at a fixed, predictable rate determined by the system clock.
Transfers data continuously without a clock signal is incorrect because SDR memory relies on a clock signal to synchronize data transfers; it does not operate asynchronously.
What is the primary purpose of RAID 1 in a storage system?
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To increase storage capacity by combining multiple disks
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To provide redundancy by mirroring data across disks
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To improve read and write speeds by striping data
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To allow for hot-swapping of disks without downtime
Explanation
Explanation:
RAID 1, also known as mirroring, is designed primarily to provide redundancy. Data is duplicated across two or more disks, so if one disk fails, the system can continue to operate using the mirrored copy. This ensures data reliability and protection against disk failure, making RAID 1 ideal for critical systems where data integrity is a priority. While it may provide minor improvements in read performance, the main purpose is to ensure data redundancy, not capacity increase or striping performance.
Correct Answer:
To provide redundancy by mirroring data across disks
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
To increase storage capacity by combining multiple disks is incorrect because RAID 1 mirrors data, which does not increase usable storage; it effectively halves the available capacity.
To improve read and write speeds by striping data is incorrect because striping is a feature of RAID 0 or RAID 5, not RAID 1. RAID 1 focuses on redundancy, not performance.
To allow for hot-swapping of disks without downtime is incorrect because hot-swapping capability depends on hardware and RAID controller support, not the RAID 1 configuration itself.
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