Cranial Nerves Lab Evaluation at Cape Fear Community College

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Free Cranial Nerves Lab Evaluation at Cape Fear Community College Questions

1. The superior oblique is innervated by which cranial nerve:
  • A. Oculomotor
  • B. Trochlear
  • C. Abducens

Explanation

B. Trochlear The trochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve IV) innervates the superior oblique muscle. This muscle allows the eye to move downward and inward (depression in adduction). Damage to CN IV causes difficulty looking down, especially when reading or walking down stairs, and may result in vertical diplopia and a characteristic head tilt to compensate.
2. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for lateral movement of the eye?
  • A. CN 3
  • B. CN 4
  • C. CN 6

Explanation

C. CN 6 Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens nerve) innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which moves the eye laterally (away from the nose). Damage to CN VI impairs eye abduction, resulting in the affected eye drifting medially (esotropia) and causing horizontal diplopia, especially when looking toward the affected side.
3. When testing the vagus nerve, the nurse should assess for:
  • A. Facial asymmetry.
  • B. Tongue movement.
  • C. Hoarseness.
  • D. Proprioception.

Explanation

The vagus nerve (CN X) innervates the larynx and pharynx. A nurse assesses it by checking swallowing, gag reflex, and voice quality. Hoarseness indicates possible dysfunction because CN X controls vocal cord movement. Damage may result in a weak, hoarse, or absent voice, which is a key finding when evaluating vagus nerve function.
4. Frontal lobe lesions or cribriform or ethmoid bone trauma can potentially cause damage to which of the following cranial nerves?
  • A. Olfactory
  • B. Optic
  • C. Oculomotor
  • D. Trochlear
  • E. Trigeminal

Explanation

A. Olfactory The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) passes through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. Trauma to this area—such as head injury impacting the frontal lobe or fractures through the cribriform plate—can shear the olfactory nerve fibers, resulting in loss of smell (anosmia). This nerve is highly vulnerable in anterior skull base fractures and frontal head trauma due to its direct connection to the frontal lobe and its passage through delicate bony foramina.
5. The lateral rectus is innervated by which cranial nerve:
  • A. Oculomotor
  • B. Trochlear
  • C. Abducens

Explanation

C. Abducens The abducens nerve (Cranial Nerve VI) innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for abducting the eye—moving the eyeball outward, away from the nose. Injury to CN VI results in the inability to abduct the affected eye, causing medial deviation (esotropia) and horizontal double vision.
6.

Click one area on the image to show where the nurse would assess cranial nerve 11. Select your answer by clicking the desired location on the image below. To move a pin, click another location on the image. To remove a pin, click it once.

  • A. Side of the neck over the sternocleidomastoid muscle
  • B. Upper shoulder over the trapezius muscle
  • C. Forehead center
  • D. Tip of the chin
  • E. Tongue surface

Explanation

Correct Selections Explanation A. Side of the neck over the SCM Cranial Nerve XI innervates the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The nurse palpates the SCM by asking the patient to rotate the head against resistance. This assesses neck strength and CN XI function. B. Upper shoulder over the trapezius The trapezius muscle is also controlled by Cranial Nerve XI. The nurse tests this by placing hands on the shoulders and asking the patient to shrug upward against resistance. Weakness suggests accessory nerve damage.
7. Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles involved in shoulder shrugging and in turning the head?
  • A. Abducens
  • B. CN X
  • C. Accessory
  • D. CN XII
  • E. CN IV

Explanation

C. Accessory The accessory nerve (Cranial Nerve XI) innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, which are responsible for turning the head and elevating (shrugging) the shoulders. Injury to CN XI results in weakness or inability to shrug the shoulders or rotate the head against resistance.
8. Cranial nerve eight (CN VIII), auditory, consists of the following branches: Select all that apply.
  • A. Cochlear
  • B. Vestibular
  • C. Maxillary
  • D. Ophthalmic
  • E. Mandibular

Explanation

A. Cochlear The cochlear branch carries auditory (hearing) information from the organ of Corti in the cochlea to the brainstem (cochlear nuclei). Hair cells transduce mechanical sound vibrations into neural impulses that travel via the cochlear nerve, enabling perception of pitch, loudness, and timbre. Damage to this branch commonly presents with sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and difficulty understanding speech—especially in noisy environments. B. Vestibular The vestibular branch conveys balance and spatial orientation signals from the semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule to the vestibular nuclei. It detects angular and linear accelerations of the head, supporting gaze stabilization (via the vestibulo-ocular reflex) and postural control. Lesions produce vertigo, nystagmus, gait instability, and nausea, and are implicated in disorders such as vestibular neuritis and Ménière’s disease.
9. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for elevating the upper eyelid?
  • A. CN 3
  • B. CN 4
  • C. CN 6

Explanation

A. CN 3 Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor nerve) innervates the levator palpebrae superioris, the muscle responsible for elevating the upper eyelid. Damage to CN III results in ptosis (drooping eyelid), because the eyelid cannot be lifted properly without oculomotor function.
10. Rapid administration of furosemide can cause damage to which of the following cranial nerves?
  • A. Trochlear
  • B. Vestibulocochlear
  • C. CN 7

Explanation

B. Vestibulocochlear Rapid IV administration of furosemide can be ototoxic, leading to damage of Cranial Nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve). This nerve controls hearing and balance. Ototoxicity may result in tinnitus, hearing loss, vertigo, and balance disturbances. To prevent this adverse effect, furosemide should be administered slowly and within recommended IV rate limits.

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