NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Fundamentals

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Free NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Fundamentals Questions

1.

Which of the following medications is a long-acting beta agonists (LABA)?

  • Methylprednisolone
  • Budesonide
  • Salmeterol
  • Zafirlukast

Explanation

Correct Answer Is:
C. Salmeterol
Explanation
Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) that provides bronchodilation for up to 12 hours by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle. LABAs are used in combination with inhaled corticosteroids for long-term asthma control and COPD management, but never as monotherapy in asthma because of the risk of severe exacerbations. Unlike short-acting beta agonists (SABAs), LABAs are for maintenance therapy rather than immediate symptom relief.
2.

When should a TSH level be drawn after adjusting the dose of levothyroxine?

  • after 24 months

  • within 6-8 weeks

  • at least once a year

  • the following week

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. within 6-8 weeks

Explanation of Correct Answer

TSH levels should be checked within 6–8 weeks after adjusting the dose of levothyroxine because thyroid hormone has a long half-life, and it takes several weeks for levels to stabilize and reflect the new steady state. Checking too early, such as within a week, would not provide accurate information. Once the patient is stable on a maintenance dose, TSH is typically monitored annually unless clinical symptoms or medication changes warrant earlier testing.


3.

Neena is planning missionary work in a region with poor drinking water. She is given a prescription for ciprofloxacin to take with her. Which of the following instructions are most important to discuss with Neena?

  • Start ciprofloxacin 1 week before traveling.

  • Take 1 tablet of ciprofloxacin with each meal while living in areas with inadequate water maintenance.

  • Use the drug if symptoms develop and are severe or do not improve in a few days.

  • Combine the antibiotic with an antidiarrheal medication, such as loperamide.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Use the drug if symptoms develop and are severe or do not improve in a few days.

Explanation of Correct Answer

Ciprofloxacin is not used as a prophylactic antibiotic for travel but is prescribed as a self-treatment option for severe traveler’s diarrhea. Neena should only take ciprofloxacin if she develops significant symptoms such as persistent diarrhea, fever, or blood in the stool that do not resolve with supportive care. Overuse can contribute to antibiotic resistance and side effects. Routine pre-travel or daily use is not recommended, and combining it with loperamide is generally avoided unless under direct medical guidance.


4.

Once a patient's thyroid is euthyroid and their dose can be maintained at the prescription, at what interval should their TSH be re-checked?

  • every 18 months
  • every 12 months
  • every 6 months
  • every 24 months

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: B. every 12 months
Explanation of Correct Answer
Once a patient with hypothyroidism reaches a stable euthyroid state on a maintenance dose, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) should be monitored annually. Checking every 12 months ensures continued stability, detects any subtle changes in thyroid function, and allows timely adjustment if needed. More frequent monitoring is generally unnecessary unless symptoms recur, the dose changes, or the patient has complicating conditions such as pregnancy or medication interactions that affect thyroid hormone levels.
5.

A patient demonstrates correct understanding of nicotine patches if they state:

  • "I can wear the same patch for up to a week. I just need to change sites with every new patch."

  • "I should start with the smallest patch and progressively use larger patches over several weeks."

  • "The patch can be placed directly hairy skin as long as it's clean. Just press down on the adhesive."

  • "Severe and persistent itching and redness means I should stop wearing the patch and contact my provider."

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. "Severe and persistent itching and redness means I should stop wearing the patch and contact my provider."

Explanation of Correct Answer

Nicotine patches should be applied once daily to clean, dry, hairless skin and rotated to avoid irritation. While mild redness is common, severe or persistent skin reactions indicate sensitivity or an allergic response and require provider consultation. Patches are not worn for a week straight, and therapy begins with higher doses that taper down, not the reverse. Placement on hairy skin reduces adhesion and absorption, so clean, hairless sites are recommended.


6.

What is the total daily dose of insulin for a diabetic patient weighing 286 pounds?

  • 55 units of basal insulin and 23 units of bolus/mealtime insulin

  • 86 units of basal insulin and 86 units of bolus/mealtime insulin

  • 78 units of basal insulin and 78 units of bolus/mealtime insulin

  • 39 units of basal insulin and 39 units of bolus/mealtime insulin

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. 39 units of basal insulin and 39 units of bolus/mealtime insulin

Explanation of Correct Answer

The standard starting total daily dose (TDD) of insulin for most adults with diabetes is 0.5 units/kg/day. First, convert 286 pounds to kilograms: 286 ÷ 2.2 ≈ 130 kg. Then calculate 130 × 0.5 = 65 units/day as the TDD. This amount is divided equally between basal and bolus insulin: about 32–33 units each. Since the answer options are rounded differently, the closest correct choice is 39 units basal and 39 units bolus, which provides balanced coverage.


7.

Long acting beta agonists must be prescribed with which medication class?

  • Glucocorticoids

  • Short acting beta agonists

  • Oral steroids

  • Methylxanthines

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Glucocorticoids

Explanation of Correct Answer

Long-acting beta agonists (LABAs) must always be prescribed in combination with inhaled glucocorticoids when managing asthma. LABAs provide prolonged bronchodilation but, when used alone, are associated with an increased risk of asthma-related deaths. Inhaled corticosteroids control the underlying airway inflammation, reducing this risk and improving overall disease management. Therefore, combination therapy ensures both immediate bronchodilation and long-term inflammation control, making it the standard of care for persistent asthma.


8.

When starting therapy for COPD and Asthma which therapy should be considered as first line?

  • Budesonide
  • Salmeterol
  • Theophylline
  • Levalbuterol

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Levalbuterol
Explanation of Correct Answer
Levalbuterol, a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA), is the first-line therapy for both asthma and COPD when initiating treatment. SABAs provide rapid bronchodilation by relaxing airway smooth muscle, making them effective for immediate relief of acute symptoms like wheezing and shortness of breath. Long-term controller therapies, such as inhaled corticosteroids (budesonide) or long-acting beta agonists (salmeterol), may be added later depending on disease severity, but initial management always begins with a rescue inhaler like levalbuterol.
9.

A 45-year-old woman complains of nightly severe persistent heartburn for the past 3 weeks and an unpleasant, acid-like taste in her mouth. The clinician suspects that she has gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate?

  • An antacid such as aluminum hydroxide
  • Dicyclomine
  • Granisetron
  • Omeprazole

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Omeprazole

Explanation of Correct Answer
Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), is the most effective first-line treatment for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), especially in patients with persistent and severe symptoms. PPIs suppress gastric acid secretion by irreversibly inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells, providing longer-lasting relief compared to antacids or H2 blockers. Antacids like aluminum hydroxide provide only temporary relief, dicyclomine is an antispasmodic not used for GERD, and granisetron is an antiemetic used for chemotherapy-induced nausea.

10.

A 45-year-old patient with a history of type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic for a follow-up appointment. The healthcare provider has prescribed metformin as part of the treatment plan. Which of the following statements regarding metformin is correct?

  • Metformin primarily stimulates insulin production from the pancreas.
  • Metformin reduces glucose levels primarily by decreasing insulin resistance.
  • Metformin is associated with a risk of hypoglycemia.
  • Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic glucose production.

Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic glucose production.

Explanation of Correct Answer
Metformin is the first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes and works by enhancing peripheral insulin sensitivity and decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, which lowers fasting plasma glucose levels. It does not stimulate insulin release, which is why the risk of hypoglycemia is minimal. Its dual effect of reducing liver glucose output and improving insulin sensitivity makes it highly effective in achieving glycemic control without promoting weight gain or significant hypoglycemia risk.

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