NUR-450 Transition to Professional Practice
Access The Exact Questions for NUR-450 Transition to Professional Practice
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock 300 + Actual Exam Questions and Answers for NUR-450 Transition to Professional Practice on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Stressed out about your NUR-450 Transition to Professional Practice test? Crush anxiety with our effective questions.
Free NUR-450 Transition to Professional Practice Questions
A patient is reviewing an explanation of benefits (EOB) in relationship to insurance reimbursement for a medical evaluation in which he had an incision and drainage procedure performed for an infected abscess as a complication of diabetes. Which code would represent the incision and drainage procedure
-
CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)
-
ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification)
-
DRG (Diagnosis-Related Group)
-
HCPCS Level II (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System)
Explanation
Correct Answer A. CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)
Explanation:
This is correct because CPT codes are used to describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic procedures and services performed by healthcare providers. The incision and drainage procedure would be represented by a CPT code for billing and reimbursement purposes.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification)
This is incorrect because ICD-10-CM codes identify diagnoses, such as an infected abscess or diabetes, not the specific procedures performed.
C. DRG (Diagnosis-Related Group)
This is incorrect because DRGs are used primarily for inpatient hospital billing under Medicare to classify hospital cases for payment, not to code individual procedures.
D. HCPCS Level II (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System)
This is incorrect because HCPCS Level II codes are used for non-physician services, supplies, and equipment, not for standard medical and surgical procedures performed by physicians.
The nurse manager is acting as a staff advocate in which of the following situations
-
Assigning a rigid schedule for staff lunch breaks
-
Implementing a self-scheduling model for staff
-
Promoting a positive work environment
-
Reprimanding a nurse for refusing to administer an unsafe dosage of an ordered medication
-
Encouraging staff to engage in self-care
Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Implementing a self-scheduling model for staff
C. Promoting a positive work environment
E. Encouraging staff to engage in self-care
Explanation:
B. Implementing a self-scheduling model for staff
Allowing nurses to participate in scheduling empowers them to balance work and personal life. This demonstrates advocacy by giving staff more control over their time, reducing burnout, and supporting work-life harmony.
C. Promoting a positive work environment
A healthy, supportive work culture improves morale, teamwork, and retention. Advocacy here involves addressing workplace issues, fostering respect, and creating an atmosphere where staff feel valued and supported.
E. Encouraging staff to engage in self-care
Promoting self-care shows concern for staff well-being, both physically and mentally. This advocacy helps prevent fatigue, supports resilience, and ensures that staff can deliver quality patient care consistently.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Assigning a rigid schedule for staff lunch breaks
Rigidly controlling breaks may not meet individual needs and can hinder rest, especially during demanding shifts. This approach prioritizes structure over staff autonomy, which does not reflect advocacy.
D. Reprimanding a nurse for refusing to administer an unsafe dosage of an ordered medication
Punishing a nurse for following safety protocols undermines advocacy. Advocates protect staff who speak up about unsafe practices, rather than disciplining them for prioritizing patient safety.
As part of promoting the Patient-Centered Care competency of the QSEN framework, a nurse leader has encouraged all nurses on the unit to advocate for their patients. After several weeks, the nurse leader evaluates the effectiveness of this initiative. Which patient statement best indicates that the nurses understand and are practicing patient advocacy
-
The nursing staff knew about their desires and allowed them to make their own decisions.
-
The nurses made all my care decisions for me so I didn’t have to worry.
-
The nursing staff provided care quickly but did not explain the procedures.
-
The nurses told me what was best for me and discouraged my input
Explanation
Correct Answer A. The nursing staff knew about their desires and allowed them to make their own decisions.
Explanation:
Patient advocacy in the QSEN Patient-Centered Care competency involves respecting the patient’s values, preferences, and expressed needs. Allowing patients to make their own decisions after understanding their desires reflects advocacy by supporting autonomy, informed decision-making, and self-determination. This approach ensures care is tailored to the patient’s individual goals and preferences, which is central to patient-centered care.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. The nurses made all my care decisions for me so I didn’t have to worry.
This is incorrect because making all decisions without patient input removes autonomy and is not consistent with advocacy.
C. The nursing staff provided care quickly but did not explain the procedures.
This is incorrect because failing to explain procedures denies the patient informed consent and limits their ability to participate in care decisions.
D. The nurses told me what was best for me and discouraged my input.
This is incorrect because discouraging patient input directly opposes the concept of advocacy and patient-centered care.
During a quarterly quality review, a nurse manager identifies that the unit’s current medication error rate is higher than the hospital benchmark. After discussing the issue with the staff, the manager decides the goal will be to reduce medication errors by 50% over the next six months. In the context of the nursing process, this decision represents which step
-
Outcomes identification
-
Planning
-
Implementation
-
Evaluation
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Outcomes identification
Explanation:
This is correct because outcomes identification involves setting measurable and specific goals that guide the nursing plan of care or improvement initiatives. In this scenario, the nurse manager’s target of reducing medication errors by 50% is a clearly defined outcome that can be measured over time to assess progress.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Planning
This is incorrect because planning involves determining the strategies and interventions needed to achieve the identified outcomes, not the step of defining the outcome itself.
C. Implementation
This is incorrect because implementation is the phase where the planned interventions are carried out, not the stage where goals are set.
D. Evaluation
This is incorrect because evaluation involves reviewing and assessing whether the identified outcomes have been met after interventions are implemented.
Which criteria should a nurse use to evaluate Web sites for accuracy with regard to providing health information to the public
-
Assess the sites for relative strengths and weaknesses.
-
Make sure that there is a physician documented as providing the information.
-
Evaluate Web sites for use of credible information supported by evidence-based practice.
-
Web sites that require a paid subscription typically provide more accurate information.
-
Web sites that are updated regularly provide more accurate information.
Explanation
Correct Answers:
A. Assess the sites for relative strengths and weaknesses.
C. Evaluate Web sites for use of credible information supported by evidence-based practice.
Explanation:
A. Assess the sites for relative strengths and weaknesses
This is correct because a systematic appraisal helps determine whether a site is trustworthy and fit for patient education. A thorough assessment examines scope (what topics are covered and what’s excluded), depth (how detailed the explanations are), and transparency (clear authorship, credentials, and contact information). It also looks at disclosures (funding sources, sponsorships, potential conflicts of interest), readability (patient-friendly language, plain-language summaries), and accessibility (clear navigation, working links). Considering these dimensions together allows the nurse to weigh trade-offs—e.g., a site may be highly readable but weak on citations—so that only the most balanced and reliable resources are recommended.
C. Evaluate Web sites for use of credible information supported by evidence-based practice
This is correct because accuracy hinges on whether claims are anchored in quality evidence. Credible sites cite primary research, systematic reviews, or reputable guidelines; distinguish facts from opinions; and reference dates of guideline versions. They should link to sources, describe how information is developed or reviewed (e.g., editorial policy, peer review), and correct errors transparently. Evidence-based content also reflects consensus guidance from recognized bodies and uses precise, qualified language that avoids overgeneralization, helping patients receive safe, current, and verifiable advice.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Make sure that there is a physician documented as providing the information
This is incorrect because accuracy depends on verifiable credentials, editorial oversight, and evidence citations—not on a single profession. High-quality content may be authored or reviewed by multidisciplinary teams (nurses, pharmacists, dietitians, public health researchers). What matters is disclosed qualifications and rigorous sourcing, not a physician label alone.
D. Web sites that require a paid subscription typically provide more accurate information
This is incorrect because paywalls are not a proxy for quality. Some paid sites are excellent, but many free resources (government, academic, major nonprofit) meet high evidentiary and editorial standards. The decisive factors are transparent authorship, references to peer-reviewed evidence, conflict-of-interest disclosures, and sound editorial processes, not whether the user pays.
E. Web sites that are updated regularly provide more accurate information
This is incorrect because recency without rigor can still propagate inaccuracies. Currency is necessary but insufficient. A frequently updated site must also show how content is vetted (editorial board, methodological standards), cite high-quality sources, and correct errors. Without these safeguards, frequent updates do not guarantee accuracy.
A nursing student who is going to graduate from a Bachelor of Science Nursing (BSN) program is preparing a résumé. What fact should the nurse pay attention to when preparing the document
-
Most employers who read résumés spend little time reviewing the document.
-
All activities should be included in the document regardless of whether they relate to the job position.
-
The document should be presented in a comprehensive narrative format.
-
Language style used is not important
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Most employers who read résumés spend little time reviewing the document.
Explanation:
Recruiters and hiring managers often scan résumés quickly—sometimes in less than a minute—to determine if the applicant meets key qualifications. A well-organized, concise résumé that highlights relevant skills, education, and accomplishments ensures important information is noticed right away. This means prioritizing clarity, brevity, and alignment with the job description rather than overloading the résumé with unnecessary details.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. All activities should be included in the document regardless of whether they relate to the job position
Including unrelated activities clutters the résumé and can distract from the applicant’s most relevant qualifications. Only experiences that directly or indirectly demonstrate skills applicable to the nursing role should be included.
C. The document should be presented in a comprehensive narrative format
Narrative or essay-style résumés are time-consuming to read and make it harder for hiring managers to quickly identify key qualifications. Bullet points and clear section headings are preferred for scanning.
D. Language style used is not important
Language style is important because strong, action-oriented language conveys professionalism and competence. Weak or unclear language can make the résumé less impactful, even if the applicant is well-qualified.
A nurse manager has been working to improve staff engagement and collaboration on a medical-surgical unit. After researching best practices, the manager decides to implement a shared decision-making model, allowing staff nurses to participate in policy development, clinical practice decisions, and quality improvement initiatives. According to evidence from similar units, what is the most significant benefit individual staff nurses will gain from this change
-
Sense of empowerment
-
Reduced workload and patient assignments
-
Guaranteed promotion to leadership positions
-
Elimination of mandatory continuing education requirements
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Sense of empowerment
Explanation:
This is correct because a shared decision-making model gives nurses an active voice in decisions that affect their work and patient care. This involvement increases their sense of ownership, value, and professional respect, which leads to greater empowerment. Empowered nurses are more engaged, confident, and motivated to contribute to positive patient and organizational outcomes.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Reduced workload and patient assignments
This is incorrect because shared decision-making focuses on participation in decisions, not on reducing patient assignments or workload.
C. Guaranteed promotion to leadership positions
This is incorrect because while participation may help develop leadership skills, it does not guarantee a promotion.
D. Elimination of mandatory continuing education requirements
This is incorrect because continuing education is a professional requirement and is not eliminated through shared decision-making models.
A nurse is reviewing her annual performance appraisal from her direct supervisor (Unit Nurse Manager) and does not agree with some of the information documented on the form. How should the nurse respond to this noted disagreement
-
Sign the form as indicated and then talk to the chief nursing officer of the facility.
-
Do not sign the form and ask for a copy so that you can bring it home to discuss it with your family.
-
Discuss your concerns with your direct supervisor and make noted comments on the form stating that you disagree and then sign the form.
-
Sign the form indicating that you agree because there are no designated restrictions on your role on the unit and this is just personally motivated.
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Discuss your concerns with your direct supervisor and make noted comments on the form stating that you disagree and then sign the form.
Explanation:
The best approach is for the nurse to address the disagreement directly with the Unit Nurse Manager, providing clear examples or evidence to support their perspective. Writing a formal comment on the appraisal ensures that the disagreement is documented in the official record. Signing the form in this context does not mean the nurse agrees—it simply acknowledges that the appraisal has been reviewed. This approach maintains professionalism, preserves open communication, and ensures that the nurse’s viewpoint is formally recorded in accordance with facility policy.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Sign the form as indicated and then talk to the chief nursing officer of the facility.
This bypasses the appropriate chain of command and may be perceived as undermining the immediate supervisor. Concerns should be addressed first with the person who completed the appraisal. Escalating too early can damage workplace relationships and limit collaborative problem-solving.
B. Do not sign the form and ask for a copy so that you can bring it home to discuss it with your family.
Refusing to sign may be viewed as noncompliance with policy and could negatively impact the nurse’s personnel file. While seeking outside advice is understandable, this approach fails to document the disagreement formally and can appear unprofessional.
D. Sign the form indicating that you agree because there are no designated restrictions on your role on the unit and this is just personally motivated.
Signing as if in agreement when there is genuine disagreement is misleading and allows inaccurate information to stand unchallenged. This can affect future evaluations, promotions, and even legal documentation. It also fails to advocate for oneself in a constructive way.
A nurse manager is leading a quality improvement initiative to align the medical-surgical unit’s practices with the Institute of Medicine’s (IOM) 10 Rules for Health Care Delivery in the 21st Century. Which of the following rules should the nurse manager ensure are in place on the unit
-
Health-care professionals are to be transparent in all activities
-
The patient is the source of control over their own care
-
Health-care professionals anticipate needs of the patient
-
Health-care decisions are based solely on provider convenience
-
Care is standardized without considering patient preferences
Explanation
Correct Answers:
A. Health-care professionals are to be transparent in all activities
B. The patient is the source of control over their own care
C. Health-care professionals anticipate needs of the patient
Explanation:
A. Health-care professionals are to be transparent in all activities
This is correct because transparency builds trust, promotes safety, and ensures patients are fully informed about their care, aligning with IOM rules.
B. The patient is the source of control over their own care
This is correct because patient-centered care requires that patients’ values and preferences guide all clinical decisions, a key IOM principle.
C. Health-care professionals anticipate needs of the patient
This is correct because anticipating patient needs promotes proactive care, reducing errors and delays, and aligns with the IOM’s focus on responsiveness.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
D. Health-care decisions are based solely on provider convenience
This is incorrect because IOM rules emphasize patient needs and evidence-based care over provider convenience.
E. Care is standardized without considering patient preferences
This is incorrect because while standardization supports safety, it must be balanced with individual patient needs and preferences for true patient-centered care.
During a monthly unit meeting, a nurse manager wants to boost morale and identify practices that contribute to the unit’s success. Instead of focusing on problems or shortcomings, the manager invites each staff member to share one thing they believe works best on the unit—something they feel proud of or see as a strength in daily operations. What problem-solving technique is the nurse manager using in this meeting
-
Appreciative inquiry
-
Root cause analysis
-
Brainstorming
-
Gap analysis
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Appreciative inquiry
Explanation:
This is correct because appreciative inquiry focuses on identifying and building upon an organization’s strengths rather than concentrating solely on problems. By asking staff to highlight what works best, the nurse manager encourages a positive outlook, fosters collaboration, and lays the foundation for expanding successful practices across the unit.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Root cause analysis
This is incorrect because root cause analysis seeks to identify the underlying causes of problems, not highlight strengths.
C. Brainstorming
This is incorrect because brainstorming generates a wide range of ideas—both positive and negative—without focusing specifically on what is already working well.
D. Gap analysis
This is incorrect because gap analysis compares current performance to desired outcomes to identify areas needing improvement, not existing strengths to build upon.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .