ATI NUR 109 Final Assessment Exam
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Free ATI NUR 109 Final Assessment Exam Questions
A nurse is educating a group of clients about complementary and integrative therapies. Which of the following statements about these therapies are accurate
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Yoga can be considered a complementary therapy that combines physical postures, breathing exercises, and relaxation techniques.
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Complementary therapies are used alongside conventional treatments to improve overall well-being.
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Meditation is a complementary therapy that focuses on the use of medications to reduce stress.
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Integrative therapies are often used as a substitute for conventional medical treatments.
- Herbal supplements can interact with prescription medications, potentially leading to adverse effects.
- Acupuncture is a type of complementary therapy that involves inserting fine needles into specific points on the body.
Explanation
Correct Answers:
A. Yoga can be considered a complementary therapy that combines physical postures, breathing exercises, and relaxation techniques.
B. Complementary therapies are used alongside conventional treatments to improve overall well-being.
E. Herbal supplements can interact with prescription medications, potentially leading to adverse effects.
F. Acupuncture is a type of complementary therapy that involves inserting fine needles into specific points on the body.
Explanation of Correct Answers:
A.Yoga can be considered a complementary therapy that combines physical postures, breathing exercises, and relaxation techniques:
Yoga is a well-established complementary therapy that promotes physical and mental well-being. It includes stretching and strengthening postures (asanas), breathing techniques (pranayama), and relaxation or meditation, all of which support stress reduction and physical health.
B.Complementary therapies are used alongside conventional treatments to improve overall well-being:
Complementary therapies are specifically defined as those that are used along with, not instead of, conventional medicine. They help manage symptoms and enhance quality of life, such as reducing anxiety, pain, or fatigue.
E.Herbal supplements can interact with prescription medications, potentially leading to adverse effects:
Many clients assume herbal remedies are harmless because they are "natural," but herbal supplements can cause dangerous interactions with prescription medications, affecting drug metabolism, absorption, or potency.
F.Acupuncture is a type of complementary therapy that involves inserting fine needles into specific points on the body:
Acupuncture is a complementary therapy rooted in traditional Chinese medicine, used to treat pain, stress, and various physical and mental conditions. It involves inserting thin needles into specific body points to stimulate energy flow and healing.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
C. Meditation is a complementary therapy that focuses on the use of medications to reduce stress.
Incorrect. Meditation is not pharmacological. It is a mind-body practice that involves mental techniques such as focused breathing, mindfulness, or guided imagery to calm the mind and reduce stress—without medication.
D. Integrative therapies are often used as a substitute for conventional medical treatments.
Incorrect. Integrative therapies combine complementary and conventional medicine to create a holistic approach to care. However, they are not intended to replace medical treatment, but rather to enhance it. Substituting integrative therapies for proven medical treatments may put patients at risk.
Summary:
The accurate statements are A, B, E, and F. These reflect evidence-based practices in complementary and integrative health. Options C and D are incorrect because they either mischaracterize the therapy (meditation involving medications) or promote unsafe substitution of conventional care.
RN is teaching about health promotion related to isotonic exercises. What types of exercises will the RN give as examples
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Swimming, jogging, bicycling
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Tightening/tensing of muscles without moving body parts
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Quadriceps set exercises and contraction of gluteal muscles
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Push-ups, hip lifting, pushing feet against footboard on the bed
Explanation
The correct answer is A: Swimming, jogging, bicycling
Explanation:
Isotonic exercises involve muscle contraction with movement of the joint, promoting muscle strengthening and endurance through dynamic activity. Examples like swimming, jogging, and bicycling require movement of the muscles and joints against resistance or body weight, which is characteristic of isotonic activity. These exercises improve cardiovascular fitness as well as muscular strength and flexibility.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Tightening/tensing of muscles without moving body parts: This describes isometric exercises, where muscle contraction occurs without joint movement.
C. Quadriceps set exercises and contraction of gluteal muscles: These are also isometric exercises, focusing on muscle contraction without movement.
D. Push-ups, hip lifting, pushing feet against footboard on the bed: These exercises combine isotonic and isometric elements, but some, like pushing feet against the footboard, are isometric. They are less representative of classic isotonic exercises compared to option A.
Summary:
Correct answer: A. Swimming, jogging, and bicycling are classic examples of isotonic exercises, involving active muscle contraction with joint movement.
A nurse is teaching a class about the physical manifestations of grief. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include
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Insomnia
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Bradycardia
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Increased ability to concentrate
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Blurred vision
Explanation
The correct answer is A: Insomnia
Explanation:
Grief can manifest physically as well as emotionally and psychologically. Insomnia is a common physical symptom of grief, as individuals often experience difficulty falling or staying asleep due to emotional distress, anxiety, or intrusive thoughts related to their loss. Sleep disturbances can further impact concentration, mood, and overall health.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Bradycardia
Bradycardia, or an abnormally slow heart rate, is not typically associated with grief. Grief may cause increased heart rate (tachycardia) due to anxiety or stress, but bradycardia is not a common manifestation.
C. Increased ability to concentrate
This is incorrect. Grief is more likely to cause decreased concentration and difficulty focusing, not enhanced mental clarity. Cognitive disruptions are a well-known effect of grief.
D. Blurred vision
Blurred vision is not a recognized or common physical symptom of grief. While crying or fatigue from grief may cause temporary eye discomfort, persistent blurred vision is not a typical manifestation and should be medically evaluated.
Summary:
Insomnia (Option A) is a common physical manifestation of grief and reflects how emotional distress can impact sleep and overall well-being.
The purpose of the dressing is to
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Keep wound dry so it can heal
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Provide moist environment for healing
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Allow microorganisms for healing
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Keep wound bleeding to help healing
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Provide moist environment for healing
Explanation:
The primary purpose of a modern wound dressing is to maintain a moist wound environment, which has been proven to promote faster and more effective healing. Moist wound healing supports cell migration, angiogenesis, and collagen synthesis, and helps prevent the wound from drying out and forming a hard scab, which can delay healing and increase pain.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Keep wound dry so it can heal
This is outdated. Keeping a wound dry can lead to delayed healing, increased pain, and a higher risk of scab formation, which can hinder tissue regeneration.
C. Allow microorganisms for healing
This is incorrect. Microorganisms cause infection, not healing. Dressings are designed to reduce contamination, not invite it.
D. Keep wound bleeding to help healing
While initial bleeding is part of the body's natural hemostasis process, continuous bleeding is harmful and not a goal of wound care. Dressings aim to control bleeding, not promote it.
Summary:
Option B is correct because the goal of wound dressings is to maintain a moist environment, which is essential for optimal wound healing and tissue repair.
A community health nurse is planning an educational program for a local community on the prevention of chronic diseases. Which of the following actions best reflects the nurse's role in promoting community health
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Focusing solely on treating acute health issues as they arise within the community
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Designing and delivering educational sessions on healthy lifestyle choices and preventive measures to the community.
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Providing one-on-one medical treatment for community members who are currently experiencing chronic disease symptoms.
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Conducting individual health screenings and providing personalized counseling for each participant.
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Designing and delivering educational sessions on healthy lifestyle choices and preventive measures to the community.
Explanation:
Community health nursing focuses on promoting health and preventing disease at the population level. By designing and providing educational programs that address healthy lifestyle habits (such as nutrition, exercise, tobacco cessation, and stress management), the nurse plays a proactive role in preventing chronic diseases like diabetes, hypertension, and heart disease. This aligns with public health goals and the core mission of community health nursing, which is to improve health outcomes through education, prevention, and population-focused strategies.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Focusing solely on treating acute health issues as they arise within the community
This is a reactive approach, not a preventive one, and does not reflect the broader scope of community health nursing, which emphasizes prevention and health promotion.
C. Providing one-on-one medical treatment for community members who are currently experiencing chronic disease symptoms
While important, treatment is not the primary focus of a community health nurse. Their role emphasizes preventing disease and promoting wellness at the community level rather than individual clinical care.
D. Conducting individual health screenings and providing personalized counseling for each participant
Although helpful, this is more individual-focused and does not have the same community-wide impact as delivering group education sessions aimed at preventing chronic conditions.
Summary:
Option B best reflects the nurse’s role in promoting community health by empowering individuals through education and prevention to reduce the risk of chronic disease across the population.
The RN agrees with regulations for mandatory immunization of children. The RN believes shots prevent disease and the spread of them to others. Which ethical framework are they using
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Deontology
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Ethics of care
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Utilitarianism
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Feminist ethics
Explanation
The correct answer is C: Utilitarianism
Explanation:
Utilitarianism is an ethical framework that focuses on actions that produce the greatest good for the greatest number of people. In the context of immunizations, the RN supports mandatory vaccination not just for the protection of individual children, but to prevent disease outbreaks and protect the broader community—especially those who cannot be vaccinated due to medical conditions. This approach values overall well-being and public health outcomes, which aligns directly with utilitarian principles.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Deontology
Deontology emphasizes duty, rules, and individual rights. While it could support immunization based on a duty to protect, it does not focus on outcomes or collective benefit, which is central to this scenario.
B. Ethics of care
This framework prioritizes relationships, empathy, and responsiveness to individual needs. It does not primarily address population-level decision-making like mandatory immunizations.
D. Feminist ethics
Feminist ethics is concerned with social justice and power imbalances, and while it may support immunization policies to protect vulnerable populations, the RN’s reasoning in this case is clearly focused on overall benefit and disease prevention for the many.
Summary:
Option C is correct because the RN supports immunization based on its benefits to public health and disease prevention, which is a classic example of utilitarianism—maximizing the overall good.
The RN needs to obtain a radial pulse from a patient. What must the RN do to obtain an accurate measurement
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Place tips of the first 2 fingers over the groove along the thumb side of the patient’s wrist
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Place the tips of the first 2 fingers over the groove along the little finger side of the patient’s wrist
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Place thumb over the groove along the little finger side of the patient’s wrist
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Place the thumb over the groove along the thumb side of the patient’s wrist
Explanation
The correct answer is A: Place tips of the first 2 fingers over the groove along the thumb side of the patient’s wrist
Explanation:
To accurately assess the radial pulse, the RN should use the pads of the index and middle fingers and place them over the radial artery, which is located on the thumb side of the wrist. This position allows the nurse to detect the rate, rhythm, and strength of the pulse effectively without interference from their own pulse, which can happen if the thumb is used.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Place the tips of the first 2 fingers over the groove along the little finger side of the patient’s wrist
This would locate the ulnar artery, not the radial artery. The ulnar pulse is not typically used for standard pulse assessments.
C. Place the thumb over the groove along the little finger side of the patient’s wrist
This also targets the ulnar side and uses the RN’s thumb, which contains a strong pulse of its own, potentially leading to an inaccurate reading.
D. Place the thumb over the groove along the thumb side of the patient’s wrist
Even though this is the correct side for the radial artery, using the RN’s thumb is not appropriate due to the risk of confusing the nurse’s own pulse with the patient’s.
Summary:
Option A is correct because using the first two fingers on the thumb side of the wrist is the standard technique for locating and assessing the radial pulse accurately.
What medication can be administered through a G-tube
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Most oral medications
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Most capsule contents dissolved in water
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Most enteric-coated tablets well dissolved in water
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Most tablets except extended-release and enteric-coated
Explanation
The correct answer is D: Most tablets except extended-release and enteric-coated
Explanation:
Gastrostomy tubes (G-tubes) are used for direct delivery of nutrition and medications into the stomach. Most standard tablets can be crushed and dissolved for G-tube administration. However, extended-release (ER) and enteric-coated (EC) tablets should not be crushed because doing so alters how the medication is absorbed and can cause harm or reduce efficacy.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Most oral medications:
Not all oral medications are safe for G-tube use. Some cannot be crushed or dissolved, such as extended-release or enteric-coated formulations.
B. Most capsule contents dissolved in water:
Not all capsule contents are safe to dissolve. Some are designed for slow release, and opening them can interfere with drug action.
C. Most enteric-coated tablets well dissolved in water:
Enteric-coated tablets are meant to dissolve in the intestines, not the stomach. Dissolving them in water defeats their purpose and may damage the stomach lining or reduce the drug's effectiveness.
Summary:
Correct answer: D. Most tablets can be given through a G-tube if they are not extended-release or enteric-coated, as these special formulations should not be altered.
Medical History
Mrs. Thompson is an 82-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with
advanced metastatic cancer. She has been receiving palliative care to
manage her symptoms and maintain comfort. Mrs. Thompson's
condition has deteriorated over the past week, and she is now in the end-
of-life stage. She has expressed her wishes for a peaceful, pain-free death
and has designated her family members to make decisions on her behalf
if she becomes unable to communicate.
Nursing Notes
Mrs. Thompson is semi-conscious with intermittent periods of
drowsiness. Her response to verbal stimuli is limited. Breathing is
irregular, characterized by Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This includes
episodes of rapid, shallow breathing alternating with periods of no
breathing. The skin is cool and mottled, particularly on the extremities.
Mrs. Thompson has not consumed solid food for the past 48 hours and is
currently receiving only small amounts of fluids. Blood pressure is low,
heart rate is irregular, and respiratory rate is variable. Vital signs are
fluctuating. The family is present at the bedside and has expressed
concerns regarding Mrs. Thompson's comfort and the quality of care she
is receiving.
What is the most important action for the nurse to take when communicating with the client and family members at end of life
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Provide detailed medical information and prognosis to the client
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Encourage the client to make decisions about treatment options and advance care planning
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Discuss funeral arrangements and end-of-life wishes with the client
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Listen actively and attentively to the client and family concerns and emotions
Explanation
The correct answer is D: Listen actively and attentively to the client and family concerns and emotions
Explanation:
At the end of life, active listening is one of the most critical nursing interventions to support the emotional and psychological needs of both the client and the family. Mrs. Thompson is semi-conscious and nearing death, so the focus shifts from decision-making or medical problem-solving to providing comfort, presence, and emotional support. By listening attentively, the nurse helps build trust, validate the family's feelings, and ensure that the client's care aligns with their values and wishes.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Provide detailed medical information and prognosis to the client
Detailed medical information may not be appropriate or helpful at this stage, especially given the client’s limited consciousness and the family's primary concern being comfort, not clinical updates.
B. Encourage the client to make decisions about treatment options and advance care planning
Mrs. Thompson has already designated her wishes and decision-makers. Since she is semi-conscious and near death, this is no longer the appropriate focus.
C. Discuss funeral arrangements and end-of-life wishes with the client
While important, these conversations are generally handled by the family at this stage, especially when the client is minimally responsive. The nurse’s role is to ensure comfort and support, not to lead funeral planning discussions.
Summary:
Option D is the most important action because listening actively and compassionately supports both the emotional and psychological needs of the client and family during the dying process.
To assess skin turgor, what technique is used
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Press lightly on the forearm
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Press lightly on fingertips
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Grasp a fold on the sternal area skin
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Grasp a fold of skin on the back of the hand
Explanation
The correct answer is C: Grasp a fold on the sternal area skin
Explanation:
Skin turgor is assessed by gently pinching and lifting a fold of skin, usually over the sternal area or the clavicle, then observing how quickly it returns to place. In well-hydrated individuals, the skin will snap back immediately. If the skin remains tenting or slowly returns, it may indicate dehydration or reduced skin elasticity.
The sternal area is preferred, especially in older adults, because age-related changes can cause the skin on the back of the hand to lose elasticity, leading to false-positive results for dehydration.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Press lightly on the forearm
This method does not assess skin turgor. It may check for tenderness or edema, but not elasticity.
B. Press lightly on fingertips
This is not a recognized method for evaluating turgor and would not yield accurate results.
D. Grasp a fold of skin on the back of the hand
Although commonly used, this area is not reliable in older adults because aging naturally reduces skin elasticity there, which can mislead assessment findings.
Summary:
Option C is correct because assessing skin turgor over the sternal area provides a more accurate indication of hydration status, especially in the elderly.
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