PMHNP Pre clinical Diagnostic Exam Chamberlain University
Access The Exact Questions for PMHNP Pre clinical Diagnostic Exam Chamberlain University
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for PMHNP Pre clinical Diagnostic Exam Chamberlain University on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free PMHNP Pre clinical Diagnostic Exam Chamberlain University Questions
Which of the following correctly identifies the order of the abdomen assessment during physical examination?
-
Percussion, auscultation, palpation, inspection
-
Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
-
Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
-
Auscultation, palpation, percussion, inspection
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
Abdominal assessment follows a unique sequence that differs from other body systems. It begins with inspection, followed by auscultation, then percussion, and finally palpation. This specific order is critical because palpation and percussion can alter bowel sounds and peristaltic activity if performed before auscultation, leading to inaccurate findings. Auscultation must therefore always precede any hands-on manipulation of the abdomen to ensure bowel sounds are assessed in their natural, undisturbed state.
All other sequences listed are incorrect because they either perform palpation or percussion before auscultation, which would compromise the accuracy of bowel sound assessment and render the examination clinically unreliable.
Which immunoglobulin is most associated with mucous membranes and auto-immune disease states such as nephritis?
-
IgD
-
IgG
-
IgM
-
IgA
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) IgA
IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin associated with mucosal surfaces, found in high concentrations in secretions such as saliva, tears, colostrum, and the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, where it provides the first line of defense against inhaled and ingested pathogens. In the context of autoimmune disease, IgA nephropathy — also known as Berger's disease — is the most common form of primary glomerulonephritis worldwide, caused by IgA immune complex deposition in the glomerular mesangium, triggering inflammation and nephritis.
IgD is primarily a B-cell surface receptor with no significant role in mucosal immunity or nephritis. IgG is associated with systemic immunity and long-term memory. IgM is the first responder in acute infections and is involved in complement activation but is not the primary immunoglobulin linked to mucosal surfaces or IgA nephropathy.
You perform a motor assessment on the face and notice abnormal movement of one side of the face and bilateral eyebrows. Which one of the following cranial nerves would you expect to cause this abnormality?
-
Hypoglossal.
-
Vagus.
-
Trigeminal.
-
Facial.
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Facial.
Cranial Nerve VII (the Facial nerve) controls the motor function of facial muscles, including the muscles of expression on both sides of the face and the forehead/eyebrows. Abnormal or asymmetrical facial movement affecting one side of the face and the bilateral eyebrows is characteristic of facial nerve dysfunction, as seen in conditions like Bell's palsy. The Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) controls tongue movement. The Vagus nerve (CN X) controls swallowing and voice. The Trigeminal nerve (CN V) is primarily responsible for facial sensation and jaw movement, not facial expression.
An "S" or "C" side-to-side curvature of the spine would be associated with which one of the following spinal abnormalities?
-
Scoliosis.
-
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA).
-
Lordosis.
-
Kyphosis.
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Scoliosis.
Scoliosis is defined as an abnormal lateral (side-to-side) curvature of the spine, which appears as an "S" or "C" shape when viewed from behind. Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory joint condition, not a spinal curvature abnormality. Lordosis refers to an exaggerated inward curve of the lower back (swayback). Kyphosis refers to an exaggerated outward curve of the upper back (hunchback). Both lordosis and kyphosis are anterior-posterior curvatures, not lateral.
Your patient presents with suspected pelvic inflammatory disease. Which of the following tests must be performed to identify the leading cause?
-
Herpes Simplex.
-
Gonorrhea and Chlamydia.
-
Serum HIV.
-
Ova and Parasite.
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Gonorrhea and Chlamydia.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted organisms, with Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis being the two leading causative pathogens. Testing for both via cervical swab or NAAT (Nucleic Acid Amplification Test) is essential to confirm the diagnosis and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. Herpes Simplex causes genital ulcers, not PID. HIV testing may be recommended concurrently as a general STI screen but does not identify the cause of PID. Ova and Parasite testing screens for intestinal parasites and is entirely unrelated to PID.
Medications are most likely to cross the blood brain barrier if they are which of the following options?
-
Lipophobic.
-
Hydrophilic.
-
Lipophilic.
-
Large in molecule size.
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Lipophilic.
The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is composed of tightly joined endothelial cells with high lipid content, making it selectively permeable. Lipophilic (fat-soluble) drugs dissolve readily into this lipid membrane and diffuse passively across the BBB into the CNS. This is why many CNS-active drugs such as anesthetics, benzodiazepines, and lipophilic beta blockers are specifically designed to be lipophilic. Hydrophilic and lipophobic drugs are repelled by the lipid barrier and have poor CNS penetration. Large molecules are physically excluded by the tight junctions of the BBB regardless of their solubility.
Your patient is complaining of "weird extra beats" in their chest and you identify them to be atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response with a heart rate of 115. Which of the following would suggest a decreased risk of systemic embolization of left atrial thrombus?
-
Active 1 pack per day smoking history.
-
Having previously underwent a Watchman procedure or other left atrial appendage closure.
-
History of protein C deficiency.
-
History of Leyden V mutation.
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Having previously underwent a Watchman procedure or other left atrial appendage closure.
In atrial fibrillation, the loss of coordinated atrial contraction causes blood to pool and stagnate in the left atrial appendage (LAA), forming thrombi that can embolize systemically and cause stroke. The Watchman device and similar LAA closure procedures physically seal off the left atrial appendage, thereby eliminating the primary site of thrombus formation and significantly reducing the risk of systemic embolization. Active smoking increases cardiovascular risk and thrombosis risk overall. Protein C deficiency is a hypercoagulable state that increases clotting risk. Factor V Leiden mutation is also a hypercoagulable condition that increases thromboembolic risk — both increase, not decrease, embolization risk.
How would you assess cranial nerve XI?
-
Have the patient shrug their shoulders.
-
Stimulate the gag reflex and say "aah".
-
Have the patient close their eyes and accurately identify two different scents.
-
Have the patient project the tip of their tongue out as directed left and rightward.
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Have the patient shrug their shoulders.
Cranial Nerve XI is the Accessory nerve, which innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Assessment involves asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance and turn their head side to side. Stimulating the gag reflex assesses CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) and CN X (Vagus). Identifying scents assesses CN I (Olfactory). Tongue movement assesses CN XII (Hypoglossal).
Which of the following agents when given orally should include rinsing the mouth for risk of development of oral candidiasis (thrush)?
-
Inhaled corticosteroids.
-
Long acting beta agonists.
-
Short acting beta agonists.
-
Leukotriene inhibitors.
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Inhaled corticosteroids.
Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) deposit steroid particles in the oropharynx during inhalation, suppressing local immune defenses and promoting overgrowth of Candida albicans, leading to oral candidiasis (thrush). Patients must be instructed to rinse their mouth and gargle with water after every use to wash away residual particles and significantly reduce this risk. Long-acting and short-acting beta agonists do not suppress local immunity and are not associated with oral candidiasis. Leukotriene inhibitors are taken as oral tablets and do not deposit in the oropharynx in the same manner.
Which of the following diagnoses are made by positive clue cells and positive whiff test?
-
Bacterial vaginosis.
-
Gonorrhea.
-
Syphilis.
-
Trichomoniasis.
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Bacterial vaginosis.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) has two hallmark diagnostic findings — clue cells and a positive whiff test. Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells heavily coated with Gardnerella vaginalis bacteria, giving them a stippled or granular appearance under microscopy with indistinct cell borders. The whiff test (also called the amine test) is performed by adding potassium hydroxide (KOH) to vaginal discharge — a positive result produces a strong fishy amine odor caused by the anaerobic bacterial overgrowth characteristic of BV. Gonorrhea is diagnosed via NAAT or culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Syphilis is diagnosed through serological testing such as RPR and VDRL. Trichomoniasis is diagnosed by identifying motile trichomonads on wet mount microscopy — not clue cells or the whiff test.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .