Governance, Risk, and Compliance (D486)
Access The Exact Questions for Governance, Risk, and Compliance (D486)
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for Governance, Risk, and Compliance (D486) on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free Governance, Risk, and Compliance (D486) Questions
Which of the following is considered a detective control?
-
Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
-
An acceptable use policy
-
Firewall
-
IPS
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
Explanation
A detective control is a security measure that identifies and records potential security incidents. CCTV surveillance acts as a detective control by monitoring and recording activities, allowing security personnel to review footage and identify security breaches after they occur. This helps with incident investigation and response.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
B. An acceptable use policy
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a preventive administrative control that sets guidelines for how employees should use company resources. It does not actively detect or monitor security incidents.
C. Firewall
A firewall is a preventive control that blocks unauthorized network traffic. It proactively stops threats but does not detect or record security incidents in the same way as a CCTV system.
D. IPS
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is also a preventive control because it blocks malicious traffic before it can cause harm. A detective control, in contrast, does not stop threats but rather detects and records them for further analysis.
Each salesperson who travels has a cable lock to lock down their laptop when they step away from the device. To which of the following controls does this apply?
-
Administrative
-
Compensating
-
Deterrent
-
Preventive
Explanation
Correct Answer
D. Preventive
Explanation
A preventive control is one that stops an incident from happening. A cable lock physically prevents unauthorized access or theft of a laptop, making it a preventive security control. The lock ensures that the laptop remains secure even when the user is not present, reducing the risk of theft.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Administrative
Administrative controls refer to policies, procedures, and guidelines (such as security training or access control policies). Since the cable lock is a physical security measure, it does not fall under administrative controls.
B. Compensating
A compensating control is an alternative security measure used when the primary control is not feasible or available. There is no indication that the cable lock is being used as a backup measure, so it is not compensating.
C. Deterrent
A deterrent control discourages potential attackers but does not physically prevent access. A cable lock actively prevents theft rather than just discouraging it, making it preventive rather than deterrent.
What phases of handling a disaster are covered by a disaster recovery plan?
-
What to do before the disaster
-
What to do during the disaster
-
What to do after the disaster
-
All of the above
Explanation
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a comprehensive document that outlines an organization’s strategy for handling and recovering from disasters. It includes steps to prepare for, respond to, and recover from disruptions to ensure business continuity.
1. Before the disaster – Organizations assess risks, implement preventive measures, and create recovery plans. This includes setting up backup systems, training employees, and testing response procedures.
2. During the disaster – The DRP provides guidance on how to respond to the crisis in real time, ensuring systems are contained, critical operations are maintained, and damage is minimized.
3. After the disaster – The recovery phase focuses on restoring normal business operations, analyzing the incident, and improving future preparedness based on lessons learned.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. What to do before the disaster
While prevention is a crucial aspect of disaster recovery, only focusing on preparation ignores the importance of an immediate response and post-disaster recovery.
B. What to do during the disaster
A DRP must cover more than just the response phase—it must also include prevention and recovery plans to ensure a structured approach.
C. What to do after the disaster
Recovery is a critical phase, but without proper preparation and immediate response measures, damage could be significantly worse. A full DRP must address all phases of disaster handling.
Zarmeena wants to transfer the risk for breaches to another organization. Which of the following options should she use to transfer the risk?
-
Explain to her management that breaches will occur
-
Blame future breaches on competitors
-
Sell her organization's data to another organization
-
Purchase cybersecurity insurance
Explanation
Correct Answer
D. Purchase cybersecurity insurance
Explanation
Risk transfer is a risk management strategy where an organization shifts financial responsibility for potential losses to a third party. Cybersecurity insurance is a common method of risk transfer, as it helps cover costs related to data breaches, legal fees, regulatory fines, and business interruptions caused by cyber incidents. By purchasing insurance, an organization can mitigate the financial impact of a breach.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Explain to her management that breaches will occur
Acknowledging that breaches can happen is part of risk assessment, but it does not transfer risk—it only raises awareness. The organization must take action to manage the risk effectively.
B. Blame future breaches on competitors
Shifting blame to competitors is not a valid risk management strategy and does not protect the organization from financial or legal consequences.
C. Sell her organization's data to another organization
Selling data does not transfer security risks; instead, it could result in severe legal consequences for violating data protection regulations like GDPR or CCPA.
You are a server administrator for your company's private cloud. To provide service to employees, you are instructed to use reliable hard disks in the server to host a virtual environment. Which of the following best describe the reliability of hard drives?
-
MTTR
-
RPO
-
MTBF
-
ALE
Explanation
Correct Answer
C. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
Explanation
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) is a metric that measures the average time a hardware component, such as a hard drive, operates before experiencing failure. It is commonly used to estimate hardware reliability and predict maintenance schedules.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair)
MTTR measures the average time required to repair a failed system and restore it to operational status. It does not indicate how reliable a hard drive is before failure.
B. RPO (Recovery Point Objective)
RPO refers to the maximum acceptable amount of data loss in the event of a failure. It is related to data recovery policies rather than the reliability of a hard drive.
D. ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy)
ALE calculates the expected annual cost of security incidents based on risk assessments. It is a financial metric, not a measure of hardware reliability.
Isaac has discovered that his organization's financial accounting software is misconfigured, causing incorrect data to be reported on an ongoing basis. What type of risk is this?
-
Inherent risk
-
Residual risk
-
Control risk
-
Transparent risk
Explanation
Correct Answer
C. Control risk
Explanation
Control risk refers to the likelihood that a control, such as a policy, procedure, or configuration, fails to prevent or detect an error or fraud. In this case, the misconfigured financial accounting software is failing to prevent incorrect data from being reported, indicating a control failure.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Inherent risk is incorrect because inherent risk refers to the natural level of risk present in an activity before any controls are applied. This situation is about a control failing, not an inherent risk.
B. Residual risk is incorrect because residual risk is the remaining risk after all controls have been applied. Here, the issue stems from a faulty control rather than being an accepted residual risk.
D. Transparent risk is incorrect because transparent risk is not a commonly recognized risk category in risk management frameworks.
What key element of regulations, like the European Union's (EU's) GDPR, drive organizations to include them in their overall assessment of risk posture?
-
Potential fine
-
Their annual loss expectancy (ALE)
-
Their recovery time objective (RTO)
-
The likelihood of occurrence
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. Potential fine
Explanation
Regulations like the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) enforce strict penalties for non-compliance, making potential fines a major factor in an organization’s risk assessment. Under GDPR, organizations can face fines up to 4% of their annual global revenue or €20 million (whichever is higher) for serious violations. This financial risk incentivizes companies to align their policies with compliance requirements to avoid legal and monetary consequences. Additionally, organizations may suffer reputational damage and legal action from data breaches, further increasing the risk.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
B. Their annual loss expectancy (ALE)
ALE is a metric used in risk assessment to estimate expected financial losses from security incidents. While GDPR fines can impact financial risk calculations, compliance is primarily driven by legal obligations rather than internal financial projections like ALE.
C. Their recovery time objective (RTO)
RTO refers to the time it takes for systems to be restored after a disruption. While disaster recovery and business continuity are important, they are not the primary drivers of regulatory compliance. GDPR and similar regulations focus more on data protection and privacy laws than system recovery.
D. The likelihood of occurrence
While organizations assess risks based on how likely a security incident or data breach is to happen, GDPR compliance is required regardless of the probability of a breach. The severity of non-compliance penalties makes it a priority, even if the risk of a breach seems low.
As part of the response to a credit card breach, Sally discovers evidence that individuals in her organization were actively working to steal credit card information and personally identifiable information (PII). She calls the police to engage them for the investigation. What has she done?
-
Escalated the investigation
-
Public notification
-
Outsourced the investigation
-
Tokenized the data
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. Escalated the investigation
Explanation
Escalating the investigation involves bringing in higher authorities or external entities, such as law enforcement, when an internal investigation uncovers significant criminal activity. In this case, Sally's decision to involve the police means she has escalated the investigation to a legal and criminal level.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
B. Public notification refers to informing affected individuals and stakeholders about a data breach. While notifying the public may eventually be necessary, Sally’s immediate action was to escalate the case to law enforcement.
C. Outsourced the investigation would mean hiring an external cybersecurity firm or private investigator to handle the case. However, Sally contacted the police, which is a legal escalation rather than outsourcing.
D. Tokenized the data involves replacing sensitive data with non-sensitive placeholders to reduce the risk of data exposure. This is a preventative security measure, not an investigative step.
How do you calculate the annual loss expectancy (ALE) that occurs due to a threat?
-
Exposure factor (EF) / single loss expectancy (SLE)
-
Single loss expectancy (SLE) x annual rate of occurrence (ARO)
-
Asset value (AV) x exposure factor (EF)
-
Single loss expectancy (SLE) / exposure factor (EF)
Explanation
Correct Answer
B. Single loss expectancy (SLE) x annual rate of occurrence (ARO)
Explanation
Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is calculated by multiplying Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) by the Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO). This formula helps organizations estimate the potential financial impact of security threats per year. SLE represents the expected loss from a single incident, while ARO estimates how often the incident might occur annually.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Exposure factor (EF) / single loss expectancy (SLE)
The exposure factor (EF) represents the percentage of loss expected if a threat materializes. Dividing EF by SLE does not result in ALE and is not a valid formula for risk assessment.
C. Asset value (AV) x exposure factor (EF)
This calculation determines the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), not the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE). ALE requires multiplying SLE by ARO to account for the frequency of the loss.
D. Single loss expectancy (SLE) / exposure factor (EF)
Dividing SLE by EF does not provide meaningful risk analysis. ALE is determined by multiplying SLE by ARO, not dividing it by the exposure factor.
What type of information does a control risk apply to?
-
Health information
-
Personally identifiable information (PII)
-
Financial information
-
Intellectual property
Explanation
Correct Answer
C. Financial information
Explanation
Control risk refers to the possibility that internal controls fail to prevent or detect errors or fraud, particularly in financial reporting. It is a key consideration in financial audits and risk management frameworks. Organizations implement internal controls to minimize financial risks such as fraud, misstatements, and non-compliance with regulations.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Health information is incorrect because control risks focus on financial oversight rather than specific protections for health-related data, which is more closely governed by regulations like HIPAA.
B. Personally identifiable information (PII) is incorrect because control risks primarily deal with financial information, while PII security falls under privacy controls and cybersecurity measures.
D. Intellectual property is incorrect because IP risks are more related to trade secret protection, legal protections, and cybersecurity rather than internal financial controls.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .
Frequently Asked Question
ULOSCA is an online study platform that offers expertly crafted exam practice questions and detailed explanations, designed to help students excel in their exams, including the Governance, Risk, and Compliance (D486) exam.
We offer over 200 exam practice questions specifically designed for the D486 exam, covering key topics to ensure you’re fully prepared.
ULOSCA is available for just $30 per month, giving you unlimited access to all our study resources.
With your subscription, you get unlimited access to practice questions, detailed explanations, and study resources that are tailored to the D486 exam.
Yes! Our practice questions are carefully designed to reflect the type and difficulty level of the questions you will encounter on the real D486 exam.
Yes, once you subscribe, you have 24/7 access to all of our high-quality study materials, allowing you to study at your own pace.
Absolutely! Each question is followed by detailed, easy-to-understand explanations that break down complex concepts, making it easier for you to grasp difficult material.
By practicing with our realistic questions and thoroughly understanding the explanations, you’ll gain deeper insights, build confidence, and enhance your ability to tackle any question on exam day.
While we currently don’t offer a free trial, we do provide unlimited access to our resources, which allows you to fully explore all the benefits of a subscription before committing.