Governance, Risk, and Compliance (D486)

Governance, Risk, and Compliance (D486)

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Free Governance, Risk, and Compliance (D486) Questions

1.

Your company website is hosted by an Internet service provider. Which of the following risk response techniques is in use?

  • Risk avoidance

  • Risk register

  • Risk acceptance

  • Risk mitigation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. Risk mitigation

Explanation

Risk mitigation involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a threat by implementing security controls or transferring responsibility to a third party. By hosting the website with an Internet service provider, the company reduces operational risks related to uptime, security, and infrastructure maintenance. This allows specialized service providers to manage risks more effectively than the company could on its own.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. Risk avoidance would mean eliminating the risk entirely, such as deciding not to have a website at all. Hosting with an ISP does not eliminate risk but rather reduces it by shifting responsibility.

B. Risk register is a document used to record identified risks, their potential impact, and responses. It is a tool for tracking risks rather than a response technique.

C. Risk acceptance occurs when an organization acknowledges a risk but chooses not to take action to mitigate it. Hosting a website with an ISP involves taking steps to reduce risks, making it a form of mitigation rather than acceptance.


2.

Zarmeena wants to transfer the risk for breaches to another organization. Which of the following options should she use to transfer the risk?

  • Explain to her management that breaches will occur

  • Blame future breaches on competitors

  • Sell her organization's data to another organization

  • Purchase cybersecurity insurance

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. Purchase cybersecurity insurance

Explanation

Risk transfer is a risk management strategy where an organization shifts financial responsibility for potential losses to a third party. Cybersecurity insurance is a common method of risk transfer, as it helps cover costs related to data breaches, legal fees, regulatory fines, and business interruptions caused by cyber incidents. By purchasing insurance, an organization can mitigate the financial impact of a breach.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. Explain to her management that breaches will occur

Acknowledging that breaches can happen is part of risk assessment, but it does not transfer risk—it only raises awareness. The organization must take action to manage the risk effectively.

B. Blame future breaches on competitors

Shifting blame to competitors is not a valid risk management strategy and does not protect the organization from financial or legal consequences.

C. Sell her organization's data to another organization

Selling data does not transfer security risks; instead, it could result in severe legal consequences for violating data protection regulations like GDPR or CCPA.


3.

What phases of handling a disaster are covered by a disaster recovery plan?

  • What to do before the disaster

  • What to do during the disaster

  • What to do after the disaster

  • All of the above

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. All of the above

Explanation

A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a comprehensive document that outlines an organization’s strategy for handling and recovering from disasters. It includes steps to prepare for, respond to, and recover from disruptions to ensure business continuity.


1. Before the disaster – Organizations assess risks, implement preventive measures, and create recovery plans. This includes setting up backup systems, training employees, and testing response procedures.

2. During the disaster – The DRP provides guidance on how to respond to the crisis in real time, ensuring systems are contained, critical operations are maintained, and damage is minimized.

3. After the disaster – The recovery phase focuses on restoring normal business operations, analyzing the incident, and improving future preparedness based on lessons learned.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. What to do before the disaster

While prevention is a crucial aspect of disaster recovery, only focusing on preparation ignores the importance of an immediate response and post-disaster recovery.

B. What to do during the disaster

A DRP must cover more than just the response phase—it must also include prevention and recovery plans to ensure a structured approach.

C. What to do after the disaster

Recovery is a critical phase, but without proper preparation and immediate response measures, damage could be significantly worse. A full DRP must address all phases of disaster handling.


4.

A security administrator is reviewing the company's plan, and it specifies an RTO of four hours and an RPO of one day. Which of the following is the plan describing?

  • Systems should be restored within one day and should remain operational for at least four hours.

  • Systems should be restored within four hours and no later than one day after the incident.

  • Systems should be restored within one day and, at most, four hours' worth of data.

  • Systems should be restored within four hours with a loss of one day's worth of data at most.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. Systems should be restored within four hours with a loss of one day's worth of data at most.

Explanation

An RTO (Recovery Time Objective) of four hours means that systems must be fully restored and operational within four hours of a failure or incident. An RPO (Recovery Point Objective) of one day means that, at worst, the company may lose up to one day's worth of data since the last backup. Together, these metrics define the company's disaster recovery strategy, ensuring minimal downtime while managing data loss risks.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. Systems should be restored within one day and should remain operational for at least four hours.

This misinterprets RTO and RPO. The RTO is four hours, meaning systems must be restored in that time, not one day. Additionally, there is no mention of a system needing to be operational for only four hours.

B. Systems should be restored within four hours and no later than one day after the incident.

This incorrectly suggests a range for restoration time, but RTO is a maximum limit of four hours. The system should not take longer than that to be restored.

C. Systems should be restored within one day and, at most, four hours' worth of data.

This confuses RPO and RTO. RPO defines data loss tolerance, not the system recovery time. The correct RPO is one day, not four hours


5.

Michelle has been asked to use the CIS benchmark for Windows 10 as part of her system security process. What information will she be using?

  • Information on how secure Windows 10 is in its default state

  • A set of recommended security configurations to secure Windows 10

  • Performance benchmark tools for Windows 10 systems, including network speed and firewall throughput

  • Vulnerability scan data for Windows 10 systems provided by various manufacturers

Explanation

Correct Answer

B. A set of recommended security configurations to secure Windows 10

Explanation

The CIS (Center for Internet Security) benchmark for Windows 10 provides a set of recommended security configurations to enhance system security. These benchmarks help organizations apply best practices for securing operating systems, reducing vulnerabilities, and maintaining compliance with security standards.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. Information on how secure Windows 10 is in its default state

While the CIS benchmarks provide security guidelines, they do not simply evaluate Windows 10 in its default state. Instead, they recommend specific security settings to improve security beyond the default configuration.

C. Performance benchmark tools for Windows 10 systems, including network speed and firewall throughput

CIS benchmarks focus on security hardening, not system performance. Performance benchmarks involve testing speed and efficiency, which is unrelated to the CIS security framework.

D. Vulnerability scan data for Windows 10 systems provided by various manufacturers

The CIS benchmarks do not provide vulnerability scan data. Instead, they offer security configuration recommendations. Vulnerability scans are typically performed using security tools such as Nessus or Qualys, not CIS benchmarks.


6.

What concept is being used when user accounts are created by one employee and user permissions are configured by another employee?

  • Background checks

  • Job rotation

  • Separation of duties

  • Collusion

Explanation

Correct Answer

C. Separation of duties

Explanation

Separation of duties (SoD) is a security principle that prevents one person from having complete control over a critical process. By splitting account creation and permission configuration between two employees, the organization reduces the risk of fraud, errors, or misuse.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. Background checks

Background checks verify an employee’s history and credibility but do not involve dividing responsibilities.

B. Job rotation

Job rotation involves periodically shifting employees between roles to reduce fraud and increase cross-training, but it does not directly relate to dividing security tasks.

D. Collusion

Collusion is when two or more individuals work together for fraudulent purposes. The scenario describes a security control to prevent fraud, not an example of collusion.


7.

Your company has outsourced its proprietary processes to Acme Corporation. Due to technical issues, Acme wants to include a third-party vendor to help resolve the technical issues. Which of the following must Acme consider before sending data to the third party?

  • This data should be encrypted before it is sent to the third-party vendor.

  • This may constitute unauthorized data sharing.

  • This may violate the privileged user role-based awareness training.

  • This may violate a nondisclosure agreement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. This may violate a nondisclosure agreement.

Explanation

A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) is a legal contract that restricts the sharing of confidential information with unauthorized parties. If Acme Corporation sends proprietary data to a third-party vendor, it could breach its NDA with your company. Before sharing any data, Acme must verify whether the agreement allows for such disclosures and, if necessary, obtain explicit permission.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. This data should be encrypted before it is sent to the third-party vendor.

Encrypting data helps protect confidentiality, but encryption alone does not address whether Acme is authorized to share the data. If the NDA prohibits sharing, encryption does not resolve the legal issue.

B. This may constitute unauthorized data sharing.

Unauthorized data sharing is a concern, but the main legal issue stems from violating the NDA. If the NDA permits data sharing with third parties under certain conditions, then it may not necessarily be unauthorized.

C. This may violate the privileged user role-based awareness training.

Privileged user role-based awareness training ensures that employees understand access control and security responsibilities. However, it does not govern external data sharing agreements, which are typically covered by NDAs or service contracts.


8.

What term is used to describe a listing of all of an organization's risks, including information about the risk's rating, how it is being remediated, remediation status, and who owns or is assigned responsibility for the risk?

  • An SSAE

  • A risk register

  • A risk table

  • A DSS

Explanation

Correct Answer

B. A risk register

Explanation

A risk register is a document that organizations use to track and manage risks. It includes details such as risk ratings, potential impact, mitigation strategies, assigned owners, and remediation status. The risk register helps organizations maintain oversight of risks and ensures accountability in risk management.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. An SSAE is incorrect because SSAE (Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements) refers to auditing standards rather than a risk-tracking document.

C. A risk table is incorrect because, while it may refer to a structured way of organizing risks, it is not the widely accepted industry term for a formal risk-tracking document.

D. A DSS is incorrect because DSS (Decision Support System) refers to a system that aids in making business decisions, not a risk management record.


9.

Isaac has been asked to write his organization's security policies. What policy is commonly put in place for service accounts?

  • They must be issued only to system administrators

  • They must use multifactor authentication

  • They cannot use interactive logins

  • All of the above

Explanation

Correct Answer

C. They cannot use interactive logins

Explanation

Service accounts are non-human accounts used by applications, scripts, or automated processes to perform system functions. A key security policy is to prevent these accounts from having interactive logins, as allowing interactive access can pose a security risk by enabling unauthorized access to system resources.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. They must be issued only to system administrators is incorrect because service accounts are typically assigned to applications, not individual administrators. Limiting service accounts to administrators would be too restrictive and unnecessary for many automated processes.

B. They must use multifactor authentication is incorrect because service accounts are often used by non-human processes, making MFA impractical or impossible to implement in many cases. Instead, strong password policies and restricted access controls are preferred.

D. All of the above is incorrect because not all the statements are true. While security best practices exist for service accounts, they are not necessarily limited to administrators, nor do they always require MFA.


10.

You are a server administrator for your company's private cloud. To provide service to employees, you are instructed to use reliable hard disks in the server to host a virtual environment. Which of the following best describe the reliability of hard drives?

  • MTTR

  • RPO

  • MTBF

  • ALE

Explanation

Correct Answer

C. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)

Explanation

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) is a metric that measures the average time a hardware component, such as a hard drive, operates before experiencing failure. It is commonly used to estimate hardware reliability and predict maintenance schedules.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

A. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair)

MTTR measures the average time required to repair a failed system and restore it to operational status. It does not indicate how reliable a hard drive is before failure.

B. RPO (Recovery Point Objective)

RPO refers to the maximum acceptable amount of data loss in the event of a failure. It is related to data recovery policies rather than the reliability of a hard drive.

D. ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy)

ALE calculates the expected annual cost of security incidents based on risk assessments. It is a financial metric, not a measure of hardware reliability.


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