2268 NURS 5220 400 Advanced Health Assessment Test 1 - University of Texas at Arlington

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Ace Your Test with 2268 NURS 5220 400 Advanced Health Assessment Test 1 - University of Texas at Arlington Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free 2268 NURS 5220 400 Advanced Health Assessment Test 1 - University of Texas at Arlington Questions

1.

In issues surrounding ethical decision making, beneficence refers to the:

  • Appropriate use of medical resources

  • Need to do good for the patient

  • Need to avoid harming the patient

  • Care provider knowing what is best for the patient

  • Care provider acting as a father or mother figure

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (B) Need to do good for the patient Beneficence is the ethical principle that obligates healthcare providers to act in ways that promote the well-being and best interests of the patient.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Appropriate use of medical resources — This relates more to the principle of justice, not beneficence.

C. Need to avoid harming the patient — This describes non-maleficence, a related but distinct ethical principle.

D. Care provider knowing what is best for the patient — This describes paternalism, which can conflict with patient autonomy.

E. Care provider acting as a father or mother figure — This also describes paternalism, not beneficence.

2.

A brief statement of the reason the person is seeking healthcare is called the:

  • Review of symptoms

  • Assessment

  • Chief Complaint

  • Diagnosis

  • Medical history

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (C) Chief Complaint The chief complaint is a concise statement, often in the patient's own words, describing the primary reason for seeking healthcare at that visit.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Review of symptoms — This is a systematic questioning of body systems for additional symptoms, not the primary reason for the visit.

B. Assessment — This refers to the clinician's evaluation and diagnostic impression, not the patient's stated reason for the visit.

D. Diagnosis — This is the clinician's determination of the disease or condition, not the patient's presenting statement.

E. Medical history — This encompasses the patient's overall past health information, not specifically the reason for the current visit.

3.

In the fetus, the right ventricle pumps the blood through the:

  • Ductus arteriosus

  • Lungs

  • Septum primum

  • Left atrium

  • Foramen ovale

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (A) Ductus arteriosus In fetal circulation, most blood from the right ventricle bypasses the non-functional lungs by flowing through the ductus arteriosus directly into the aorta.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Lungs — In fetal circulation, only a small amount of blood goes to the lungs since they are non-functional for gas exchange; most blood is shunted away via the ductus arteriosus.

C. Septum primum — This is a structural component of the atrial septum during development, not a pathway for right ventricular blood flow.

D. Left atrium — Blood does not flow from the right ventricle directly into the left atrium; the foramen ovale allows right-to-left atrial shunting, not ventricular flow.

E. Foramen ovale — This is an opening between the right and left atria, not a pathway related to right ventricular outflow.

4.

Breath sounds normally auscultated over most of the lung fields are called:

  • Bronchovesicular

  • Hyperresonance

  • Tubular

  • Vesicular

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (D) Vesicular Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds normally heard over most of the peripheral lung fields, reflecting normal airflow through smaller airways and alveoli.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Bronchovesicular — These are intermediate sounds heard over the main bronchi (e.g., between the scapulae), not over most of the lung fields.

B. Hyperresonance — This refers to a percussion sound (not a breath sound) indicating excess air, such as in emphysema or pneumothorax.

C. Tubular — This is not a standard classification of normal breath sounds; it is more descriptive of abnormal, hollow-sounding breath sounds.

5.

An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate:

  • Decreased cardiac output

  • Hyperventilation

  • Dextrocardia

  • Obesity

  • Left ventricular hypertrophy

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (E) Left ventricular hypertrophy An enlarged, laterally and inferiorly displaced point of maximal impulse (PMI), beyond the normal fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, suggests left ventricular hypertrophy or enlargement.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Decreased cardiac output — This would not characteristically displace the PMI; it may actually make the PMI weaker or harder to palpate.

B. Hyperventilation — This is a respiratory pattern change unrelated to cardiac displacement of the PMI.

C. Dextrocardia — This would displace the PMI to the right side of the chest, not simply beyond the normal left-sided location.

D. Obesity — Obesity often makes the PMI harder to palpate or displaces it due to body habitus, but is not the classic cause of lateral displacement beyond the fifth intercostal space.

6.

When enlarged, which lymph nodes are most likely to be a sign of malignancy?

  • Supraclavicular

  • Posterior Cervical

  • Occipital

  • Anterior Cervical

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (A) Supraclavicular Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is highly concerning for malignancy, as this node drains lymphatics from the thoracic and abdominal organs, and enlargement here (e.g., Virchow's node) is classically associated with metastatic cancer.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Posterior Cervical — This is more commonly associated with infections such as mononucleosis or scalp infections, rather than malignancy.

C. Occipital — This is typically linked to localized scalp infections or infestations (e.g., lice), not malignancy.

D. Anterior Cervical — This is usually associated with infections of the pharynx, mouth, or upper respiratory tract, rather than being a classic malignancy sign.

7.

A third heart sound is created by:

  • Atrial contraction

  • Diastolic filling

  • Ventricular contraction

  • Blood in the pericardium

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (B) Diastolic filling The third heart sound (S3) occurs during early diastole when blood rushes rapidly into the ventricles, causing vibration of the ventricular walls as they fill.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Atrial contraction — Atrial contraction (late diastole) produces the fourth heart sound (S4), not S3.

C. Ventricular contraction — This corresponds to systole and the production of S1 (closure of AV valves), not S3.

D. Blood in the pericardium — This is not directly related to normal or extra heart sound generation.

8.

Expected hair distribution changes in the older adults include:

  • Increased terminal hair follicles to the tragus of men's ears

  • Increased terminal hair follicles to the scalp

  • More prominent axillary and pubic hair production

  • More prominent peripheral extremity hair production

  • Women may develop less coarse facial hair

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (A) Increased terminal hair follicles to the tragus of men's ears With aging, men commonly develop increased coarse terminal hair growth in areas such as the eyebrows, ears (including the tragus), and nostrils, a recognized normal aging change.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Increased terminal hair follicles to the scalp — Aging is typically associated with scalp hair thinning and loss, not increased growth.

C. More prominent axillary and pubic hair production — Aging is associated with decreased, not increased, axillary and pubic hair.

D. More prominent peripheral extremity hair production — Aging typically causes decreased hair growth on the extremities.

E. Women may develop less coarse facial hair — Aging women often develop more coarse facial hair (e.g., chin/upper lip) due to hormonal changes, not less.

9.

When measuring visual acuity, you are assessing cranial nerve:

  • I

  • VII

  • II

  • V

  • VIII

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (C) II The optic nerve (cranial nerve II) is responsible for vision, and visual acuity testing (e.g., Snellen chart) directly assesses its function.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. I — Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve, responsible for smell, not vision.

B. VII — Cranial nerve VII is the facial nerve, responsible for facial movement and taste, not visual acuity.

D. V — Cranial nerve V is the trigeminal nerve, responsible for facial sensation and mastication, not vision.

E. VIII — Cranial nerve VIII is the vestibulocochlear nerve, responsible for hearing and balance, not vision.

10.

If the apical impulse is more vigorous than expected to the chest wall, it is called:

  • A bruit

  • Crepitus

  • A thrill

  • A murmur

  • A lift

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (E) A lift A lift (or heave) is a sustained, forceful outward movement of the chest wall from an abnormally vigorous apical impulse, often indicating ventricular hypertrophy.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. A bruit — This is an abnormal vascular sound heard on auscultation, not a palpable chest wall movement.

B. Crepitus — This refers to a crackling sound/sensation, often related to subcutaneous air or joints, not cardiac impulses.

C. A thrill — This is a palpable vibration associated with a loud murmur, not the vigor of the apical impulse itself.

D. A murmur — This is an auscultated sound caused by turbulent blood flow, not a palpable chest wall finding.

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