ATI Custom NUR212 Midpoint Assessment Fall 2 2025
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Free ATI Custom NUR212 Midpoint Assessment Fall 2 2025 Questions
A nurse is caring for a male client who has a urinary tract infection. Which of the following conditions is the client most likely to develop as a result of the UTI?
- Benign prostatic hypertrophy
- Erectile dysfunction
- Chlamydia
- Prostatitis
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (D):
In males, urinary tract infections can spread to the prostate gland, resulting in prostatitis, which is inflammation or infection of the prostate. Bacteria from the urinary tract may ascend through the urethra and infect the prostate. Symptoms may include perineal pain, fever, dysuria, urinary retention, or pelvic discomfort. This is a common complication of UTIs specifically in male patients due to anatomical proximity.
A nurse is reviewing assessment data for four clients. Which of the following findings is MOST consistent with Graves’ disease?
- Heart rate is 54 bpm, with constipation and poor appetite
- Nonpitting edema noted in the extremities with thinning hair
- Patient has recently lost over 10 pounds in the last month and reports a fine tremor in the hands
- Patient is anxious and irritable with skin moist and warm
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (C): Graves’ disease is a form of hyperthyroidism characterized by excessive thyroid hormone production. A rapid and unexplained weight loss combined with a fine tremor in the hands strongly indicates increased metabolic activity, which is typical of hyperthyroidism. These symptoms reflect heightened sympathetic nervous system activity, increased caloric expenditure, and neuromuscular excitability—all classic findings in Graves’ disease. The weight loss is unintentional and unexplained, making it more concerning for an endocrine disorder rather than lifestyle change.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has hypothyroidism and has been prescribed levothyroxine. Which of the following medication instructions would the nurse include in the teaching?
- "Take this medication with high-protein foods."
- "Take this medication with a full glass of water or fruit juice."
- "Take this medication before a meal or several hours after a meal."
- "Take this medication during your morning meal."
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (C): Levothyroxine must be taken on an empty stomach for best absorption. The medication should be taken first thing in the morning, ideally 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast, or at least 3–4 hours after eating. Food—especially high-fiber, calcium, iron, soy, and protein-rich foods—can interfere with absorption and reduce effectiveness. Taking it correctly improves hormone regulation and therapeutic stability.
A nurse is teaching a community education course about the physical complications related to substance use disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the primary cause of liver cirrhosis?
- Caffeine
- Inhalants
- Cocaine
- Alcohol
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (D):
Chronic alcohol use is the leading cause of liver cirrhosis due to repeated inflammation and scarring of liver tissue. Alcohol is metabolized by the liver, and excessive long-term use leads to fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis, fibrosis, and ultimately cirrhosis. Cirrhosis impairs liver function and can lead to portal hypertension, jaundice, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, and liver failure. Alcohol-related liver disease is one of the most preventable causes of mortality.
A patient with Type 2 Diabetes has been diagnosed with Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Syndrome (HHS). The patient's spouse asks the RN which symptoms characterize this disorder. Which are the most appropriate responses by the RN? Select all that apply. (Select All that Apply.)
- Elevated BUN and creatinine
- Taut, dry skin
- Slow heart rate
- Elevated blood glucose
- Decreased osmolality
Explanation
Explanation
A. Elevated BUN and creatinine
In HHS, severe dehydration causes reduced renal perfusion, leading to elevated BUN and creatinine levels. These lab findings are markers of dehydration and impaired kidney function, which are commonly seen in HHS due to extreme fluid loss from osmotic diuresis.
B. Taut, dry skin
HHS causes profound dehydration resulting in very dry, tented, or taut skin. The osmotic diuresis caused by extremely high blood glucose levels leads to excessive urination, loss of fluids, and marked skin dryness, a key physical assessment finding.
D. Elevated blood glucose
HHS is characterized by very high blood glucose levels—usually above 600 mg/dL, without significant ketoacidosis. This elevated glucose level increases serum osmolality and draws fluid out of tissues, contributing to dehydration and neurologic changes.
A nurse is caring for a female client who has recurrent kidney stones and is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Which of the following statements by the client should the nurse report to the provider?
- "The last time I voided it was painful and red-tinged."
- "I drink at least 2 quarts of fluid every day."
- "My period ended 2 days ago."
- "I don't eat shellfish because it gives me hives."
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (D):
An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) involves the use of iodine-based contrast dye, which carries a risk of allergic reactions. A client who develops hives after eating shellfish may have a hypersensitivity to iodine. This must be reported to the provider immediately because contrast dye could trigger a serious allergic reaction or anaphylaxis. Pre-medication or alternative imaging may be required.
Admission Note
68-year-old male. report consuming 2 alcoholic beverages per day. A history of hypertension and has gained 10 pounds in the last 4 months. There is a family history of diabetes mellitus. Patient reports having been extremely thirsty and hungry with frequent urination along with numbness and tingling in lower extremities. The patient has a right lower extremity ulcer. The patient tested positive for COVID three weeks ago and has had a decrease in activity since. The patient reports nausea and vomiting over the past 3 days. Spouse is at the bedside.
Nurse's Note
0900: The patient is alert and oriented with periods of confusion. speech is clear, and lungs are clear upon auscultation. Skin is dry and appropriate for ethnicity. Bowels sounds present in all quadrants and urine is light yellow.
Vital Signs
Time 0900
Temperature 101.2F (38.4C)
Heart rate 104/min
Respiratory rate 22/min
Blood pressure 140/84 mmHg
Oxygen saturation 95% RA
Pain 6/10 on scale= of 1-10
Labs
Time Test Results
Reference Range
0900
WBC
12.432uL
5.000 - 10.000 uL
Potassium 4.3 3.5 - 5.1 mEq/L
Sodium 148 133 -147 mEQ/L
BUN 28 7-26 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 0.7 - 1.21 mg/dL
Glucose 450 70-99 mg/dL
Complete the following sentence by choosing from the list of options.
The nurse should first address the patient's —------------(Glucose/ Heart rate/ Temperature/ Blood pressure) followed by the client's—-------------(Pulse Ox/ Leg ulcer/ Temperature/ Glucose)
The nurse should first address the patient's:
(Glucose / Heart rate / Temperature / Blood pressure)
followed by the client’s:
(Pulse Ox / Leg ulcer / Temperature / Glucose)
- Heart rate first, followed by Temperature
- Blood pressure first, followed by Pulse Ox
- Glucose first, followed by Leg ulcer
- Temperature first, followed by Glucose
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (C):
The client’s glucose is 450 mg/dL, which indicates possible Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Syndrome (HHS)—a medical emergency characterized by severe dehydration, confusion, nausea, vomiting, and possible coma. This must be treated before wound care or other secondary assessments. After stabilizing glucose, the right leg ulcer becomes the next priority because the patient is likely diabetic, immunocompromised, and at high risk for infection and poor circulation.
A nurse is preparing dietary instructions for a client who has episodes of biliary colic from chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- Avoid foods high in fat.
- Avoid foods high in sodium.
- Include foods high in fiber.
- Include foods high in starch and proteins.
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (A):
Chronic cholecystitis and biliary colic are often triggered by the consumption of fatty foods, because fat digestion stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile. This can cause pain, inflammation, and worsening symptoms. Therefore, clients should avoid fatty foods such as fried foods, full-fat dairy, processed meats, and high-fat sauces. A low-fat diet reduces gallbladder stimulation and decreases discomfort during cholecystitis flare-ups.
Which symptoms reported by the patient immediately following the surgical removal of the thyroid and parathyroid gland requires intervention by the RN? Select the "2" findings that require immediate follow-up.
- Earache
- Increased appetite
- Hand tremors
- Dizziness
- Foot cramps
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answers
C. Hand tremors
Hand tremors indicate neuromuscular irritability, which is a classic sign of hypocalcemia after removal of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels; damage or removal leads to decreased calcium and possible tetany. Hypocalcemia is life-threatening if untreated and may progress to laryngospasm or seizures. Immediate assessment and possible IV calcium replacement are required.
E. Foot cramps
Foot cramps also signal hypocalcemia, another sign of increased neuromuscular excitability. Muscle cramping or spasms—especially in feet, hands, or face—require immediate intervention to prevent worsening tetany or respiratory compromise. These symptoms are early indicators and must be treated promptly.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has acute pancreatitis. The nurse should expect to find an elevation of which of the following values?
- Magnesium
- Amylase
- RBC count
- Calcium
Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (B):
In acute pancreatitis, pancreatic enzymes such as amylase and lipase leak into the bloodstream due to inflammation and autodigestion of the pancreas. Amylase levels typically rise within hours of onset and are a key diagnostic indicator of pancreatitis. Elevated amylase confirms pancreatic injury and is commonly used to assess severity and treatment response.
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