NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 Community Health Nursing
NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 Community Health Nursing – Practice Questions With Answers
Build your test-taking confidence with Ulosca's NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 Community Health Nursing review. This guide is designed for nursing students aiming to master the essential public health concepts required for safe, effective, and equitable community care.
Everything you need to answer with confidence:
- Covers all key Exam 2 topics including community assessment, levels of prevention, epidemiology, social determinants of health, vulnerable populations, cultural competence, and the 10 Essential Public Health Services.
- Features timed practice sets with high-yield scenario-based questions modeled after real exam formats.
- Strengthens your ability to apply public health frameworks, prioritize nursing interventions, and evaluate population-level outcomes.
- Fully aligned with NUR 404 SU25 course objectives and assessment requirements.
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Free NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 Community Health Nursing Questions
A client who is in the transition phase reports the narcotic pain medication they last received 3 hours ago has worn off. The client asks if they can have another dose of the narcotic. How should the nurse respond to the request
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It is too early as the medication should be given only every 4 hours
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I will get permission from your health care provider
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Since it has been over 3 hours, you should be able to have more of the medication
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Your phase of labor makes giving another dose unsafe for the fetus
Explanation
Correct Answer D. Your phase of labor makes giving another dose unsafe for the fetus
Explanation:
During the transition phase of labor (usually 7–10 cm dilation), labor is progressing quickly, and birth is approaching. Giving narcotics at this time can cause respiratory depression in the newborn if birth occurs before the drug wears off. The timing, not just the interval since the last dose, must be considered. Safety of the fetus is the priority.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. It is too early as the medication should be given only every 4 hours
This assumes a fixed schedule without considering the stage of labor. The issue isn’t only time—it’s the proximity to delivery.
B. I will get permission from your health care provider
While provider input is necessary, this response avoids informing the client about the reason for withholding the medication and delays proper communication.
C. Since it has been over 3 hours, you should be able to have more of the medication
This ignores the critical safety concern about administering narcotics close to delivery. Time alone doesn’t determine appropriateness.
. If the fetal monitor demonstrates the following pattern, which action would the nurse perform first?
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Prepare for vaginal delivery
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Administer oxygen at 3–4 liters via nasal cannula
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Turn the client or ask the client to turn on their side
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Perform a vaginal exam to assess for the umbilical cord
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Turn the client or ask the client to turn on their side
Explanation:
The image shows variable decelerations, which are abrupt drops in fetal heart rate and are often caused by umbilical cord compression. The first nursing action is to reposition the client, typically to a side-lying position, to relieve cord pressure and improve fetal oxygenation. This is a rapid and non-invasive intervention that can immediately impact fetal status.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Prepare for vaginal delivery
This is premature. Delivery may be necessary if the condition persists, but initial interventions to relieve the decelerations must be attempted first.
B. Administer oxygen at 3–4 liters via nasal cannula
Oxygen may be helpful, but repositioning is more immediate and effective in relieving cord compression, making it the priority action.
D. Perform a vaginal exam to assess for the umbilical cord
This is appropriate after repositioning, especially if variable decelerations persist or worsen, to rule out cord prolapse. However, it's not the first step.
During discharge education of a patient diagnosed with pediculosis capitis, the nurse instructs the parents on what treatment
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Throw away all stuffed animals
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Change bed linen every 12 hours
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Seal all non-washable items in airtight bags
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Soak all hair items in alcohol
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Seal all non-washable items in airtight bags
Explanation:
For pediculosis capitis (head lice), non-washable items such as stuffed animals or pillows should be sealed in airtight plastic bags for 2 weeks to kill lice and nits through suffocation, as lice cannot survive long without a host. This method is effective and avoids unnecessary disposal of items.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Throw away all stuffed animals
This is unnecessary. Items can be safely stored in sealed bags rather than discarded, which is more practical and cost-effective.
B. Change bed linen every 12 hours
While laundering is essential, changing linens every 12 hours is excessive. Once daily washing of bedding and clothing in hot water is sufficient.
D. Soak all hair items in alcohol
Hair accessories should be soaked in hot water (at least 130°F or 54°C) for 5–10 minutes, not alcohol. Alcohol is not a recommended or effective disinfectant for lice.
When assessing a 2.5-year-old, the nurse would expect the toddler to have
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12 deciduous teeth
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20 deciduous teeth
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6 deciduous and 12 permanent teeth
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16 deciduous and 2 permanent teeth
Explanation
Correct Answer B. 20 deciduous teeth
Explanation:
By about 2.5 years of age, most children have a full set of 20 deciduous (primary or baby) teeth—10 on the top and 10 on the bottom. This includes incisors, canines, and molars. This is a normal developmental milestone and is part of routine physical assessment in toddlers.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. 12 deciduous teeth
By 2.5 years, having only 12 teeth would be considered delayed eruption. Most children have more than 12 by this age.
C. 6 deciduous and 12 permanent teeth
Permanent teeth do not erupt this early. They typically begin to appear around 6 years of age, making this combination inaccurate.
D. 16 deciduous and 2 permanent teeth
This is also incorrect, as no permanent teeth are expected in a toddler. A 2.5-year-old should still have only deciduous teeth.
A client with sickle cell disease is in a vaso-occlusive crisis and reporting a severe headache with blurry vision. What intervention should the nurse perform first
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Administer analgesic medication
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Assess the client's neurological status
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Increase the client's intravenous fluids
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Administer 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula
Explanation
Correct Answer B. Assess the client's neurological status
Explanation:
A severe headache with blurry vision in a client with sickle cell disease could indicate a stroke or other neurologic complication, which is a medical emergency. The first priority is to perform a focused neurological assessment to detect signs of increased intracranial pressure or neurologic compromise, guiding the urgency of medical intervention.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Administer analgesic medication
Pain control is important in vaso-occlusive crisis, but it is not the priority when new or worsening neurological symptoms are present. Analgesics could mask changes in mental status.
C. Increase the client's intravenous fluids
Hydration helps reduce sickling, but it is a supportive measure. It does not address the immediate risk of a possible neurologic event.
D. Administer 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula
Oxygen may be beneficial in sickle cell crisis, but it is not the first action when symptoms suggest potential neurological impairment, which takes precedence.
After assisting the provider with an amniotomy on a laboring client, what is the nurse's priority action
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Adjust the intravenous fluid infusion rate
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Provide clean gown and linens for the client
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Assess the fetal heart rate
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Assist the client to wash the perineum
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Assess the fetal heart rate
Explanation:
The priority nursing action after an amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes) is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR). This is critical because cord prolapse or fetal distress can occur when the membranes rupture, and the FHR may reveal signs such as bradycardia or variable decelerations that indicate complications.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Adjust the intravenous fluid infusion rate
This may be necessary depending on labor progression, but it is not the immediate priority following membrane rupture.
B. Provide clean gown and linens for the client
This is part of routine comfort care after ensuring fetal well-being, not a priority over FHR assessment.
D. Assist the client to wash the perineum
Perineal care is important for hygiene but is not urgent. It follows after confirming there are no complications for the fetus.
The nurse is caring for a client who had a cesarean section birth. Which of the following would be the most important assessment to make
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If signs of infection are present at the incision site
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If they plan to return to work postpartum
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If signs of infection are present at the perineal site
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If their breasts fill by the 1st postpartum day
Explanation
Correct Answer A. If signs of infection are present at the incision site
Explanation:
For a client recovering from a cesarean section, the incision site is a primary area of concern. The nurse must monitor for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, warmth, drainage, or increased pain, as this can lead to serious complications like wound dehiscence or sepsis if untreated.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
B. If they plan to return to work postpartum
While this is important for discharge planning and support, it is not a priority assessment during the immediate post-op recovery period.
C. If signs of infection are present at the perineal site
Perineal assessment is more relevant for vaginal births. After a cesarean, the abdominal incision is the main focus.
D. If their breasts fill by the 1st postpartum day
Breast fullness usually begins around day 2–3 postpartum. While important for lactation assessment, it is not the most urgent concern compared to the risk of surgical site infection.
A client who is now a G6 P6006 is 15 minutes postpartum from a normal vaginal delivery. The newborn weighed 10 lbs 13 ounces (4595 grams) at birth. Which of the following complications should the nurse monitor for in this client
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Hemorrhage
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Thrombosis
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Seizures
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Infection
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Hemorrhage
Explanation:
The client is grand multipara (G6 P6006) and delivered a macrosomic baby (over 4000 grams). Both are significant risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). Grand multiparity may lead to uterine atony (a uterus that doesn’t contract well), and a large baby can overstretch the uterus, further increasing the risk of bleeding.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
B. Thrombosis
While postpartum women are at some risk for thrombosis, there’s no specific evidence or condition here (like immobility or thrombophilia) making it the top concern at this moment.
C. Seizures
Seizures would typically be associated with eclampsia, which isn’t indicated in this scenario. There are no signs or history of preeclampsia.
D. Infection
Postpartum infection is a concern but not an immediate priority at 15 minutes postpartum unless other signs (e.g., fever, foul discharge) develop. Hemorrhage is the most acute threat in this context.
Which assessment on the third postpartum day would indicate to the nurse that a client is experiencing uterine subinvolution
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The fundus is palpated 3 finger-breadths below the umbilicus after voiding
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Uterine cramping is mild and resolved by NSAIDs
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The fundus is palpated 2 finger-breadths above the pubic symphysis after voiding
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The fundus is palpated at the umbilicus after voiding
Explanation
Correct Answer D. The fundus is palpated at the umbilicus after voiding
Explanation:
By the third postpartum day, the fundus should have descended to about 2–3 finger-breadths (approximately 2–3 cm) below the umbilicus. If it remains at the level of the umbilicus, this suggests uterine subinvolution, or a delay in the uterus returning to its pre-pregnancy size and position.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. The fundus is palpated 3 finger-breadths below the umbilicus after voiding
This is normal uterine involution for day 3 postpartum, indicating proper healing and descent of the uterus.
B. Uterine cramping is mild and resolved by NSAIDs
This is an expected postpartum symptom known as "afterpains." It does not indicate subinvolution.
C. The fundus is palpated 2 finger-breadths above the pubic symphysis after voiding
This would be appropriate or even slightly lower than expected by day 3, showing continued descent, not delayed involution.
The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 weeks postpartum. The nurse would be concerned about mastitis if which of the following were noted
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Urinary frequency
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Flu-like symptoms
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Unilateral breast tenderness
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Unilateral breast erythema
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Uterine tenderness
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Bilateral breast firmness
Explanation
Correct Answers:
B. Flu-like symptoms
C. Unilateral breast tenderness
D. Unilateral breast erythema
Explanation of Correct Answers:
B. Flu-like symptoms
Clients with mastitis often experience fever, chills, fatigue, and body aches, which mimic flu symptoms. These are systemic signs of infection.
C. Unilateral breast tenderness
Mastitis usually affects one breast and causes localized pain or tenderness. This is a common early symptom.
D. Unilateral breast erythema
Redness or warmth over one breast is a hallmark of mastitis, often indicating inflammation or infection in a localized area.
Explanation of Incorrect Answers:
A. Urinary frequency
This symptom is more commonly associated with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is not related to mastitis.
E. Uterine tenderness
Uterine tenderness may suggest endometritis, not mastitis. It involves a different postpartum complication.
F. Bilateral breast firmness
This could be related to engorgement or milk production, which is normal in lactating clients and not specific to mastitis.
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NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 – Community Health Nursing: Comprehensive Study Notes
This exam focuses on applying community health nursing concepts to population-focused care, epidemiology, prevention strategies, vulnerable populations, and disaster response. Students will be expected to use critical thinking to apply theoretical knowledge to real-world public health scenarios.
1. Community Health Nursing Foundations
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Community as Client – Shifting the focus from individual care to population-level health outcomes.
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Core Public Health Functions – Assessment, policy development, and assurance.
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Community Assessment Tools – Demographic analysis, windshield surveys, and needs assessments.
2. Epidemiology & Health Data
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Epidemiologic Triangle – Host, agent, and environment interactions in disease causation.
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Rates and Ratios – Incidence vs. prevalence, morbidity, and mortality rates.
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Epidemiologic Study Types – Descriptive, analytic, and experimental designs.
3. Levels of Prevention
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Primary Prevention – Health promotion and disease prevention before onset (e.g., immunizations, education).
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Secondary Prevention – Early detection and prompt treatment (e.g., screenings).
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Tertiary Prevention – Managing established disease to prevent complications.
4. Social Determinants of Health
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Impact of income, education, environment, and access to care on population health.
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Nursing role in advocacy, referral, and policy influence.
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Strategies for reducing health disparities.
5. Vulnerable Populations
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Characteristics of at-risk groups: homeless, elderly, migrant workers, uninsured, chronically ill.
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Barriers to care and tailored nursing interventions.
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Importance of cultural competence and trauma-informed care.
6. Cultural Competence in Nursing
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Cultural humility, respecting diverse values and health beliefs.
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Communication strategies: use of interpreters, culturally relevant education.
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Incorporating patient cultural preferences into care planning.
7. Environmental & Occupational Health
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Effects of environmental hazards on community health (air/water pollution, toxic exposure).
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Nursing responsibilities in assessment, education, and environmental justice advocacy.
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Workplace safety and occupational health principles.
8. Public Health Interventions
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Education programs, mass immunizations, screening events.
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Collaboration with local organizations, agencies, and community stakeholders.
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Evaluating program effectiveness using measurable outcomes.
9. Disaster Management
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Preparedness – Developing and participating in drills, identifying resources.
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Response – Implementing triage, first aid, and public communication.
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Recovery – Rebuilding health services, evaluating response, and planning improvemen