NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 Community Health Nursing
Access The Exact Questions for NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 Community Health Nursing
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 Community Health Nursing on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free NUR 404 Exam 2 SU25 Community Health Nursing Questions
A client with sickle cell disease is in a vaso-occlusive crisis and reporting a severe headache with blurry vision. What intervention should the nurse perform first
-
Administer analgesic medication
-
Assess the client's neurological status
-
Increase the client's intravenous fluids
-
Administer 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula
Explanation
Correct Answer B. Assess the client's neurological status
Explanation:
A severe headache with blurry vision in a client with sickle cell disease could indicate a stroke or other neurologic complication, which is a medical emergency. The first priority is to perform a focused neurological assessment to detect signs of increased intracranial pressure or neurologic compromise, guiding the urgency of medical intervention.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Administer analgesic medication
Pain control is important in vaso-occlusive crisis, but it is not the priority when new or worsening neurological symptoms are present. Analgesics could mask changes in mental status.
C. Increase the client's intravenous fluids
Hydration helps reduce sickling, but it is a supportive measure. It does not address the immediate risk of a possible neurologic event.
D. Administer 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula
Oxygen may be beneficial in sickle cell crisis, but it is not the first action when symptoms suggest potential neurological impairment, which takes precedence.
A client who is in the transition phase reports the narcotic pain medication they last received 3 hours ago has worn off. The client asks if they can have another dose of the narcotic. How should the nurse respond to the request
-
It is too early as the medication should be given only every 4 hours
-
I will get permission from your health care provider
-
Since it has been over 3 hours, you should be able to have more of the medication
-
Your phase of labor makes giving another dose unsafe for the fetus
Explanation
Correct Answer D. Your phase of labor makes giving another dose unsafe for the fetus
Explanation:
During the transition phase of labor (usually 7–10 cm dilation), labor is progressing quickly, and birth is approaching. Giving narcotics at this time can cause respiratory depression in the newborn if birth occurs before the drug wears off. The timing, not just the interval since the last dose, must be considered. Safety of the fetus is the priority.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. It is too early as the medication should be given only every 4 hours
This assumes a fixed schedule without considering the stage of labor. The issue isn’t only time—it’s the proximity to delivery.
B. I will get permission from your health care provider
While provider input is necessary, this response avoids informing the client about the reason for withholding the medication and delays proper communication.
C. Since it has been over 3 hours, you should be able to have more of the medication
This ignores the critical safety concern about administering narcotics close to delivery. Time alone doesn’t determine appropriateness.
When assessing the fundus in a postpartum client, which palpation method is recommended
-
Placing one hand on the fundus, one on the perineum
-
Palpating the fundus with only fingertip pressure
-
Placing one hand at the base of the uterus, one on the fundus
-
Resting both hands on the fundus
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Placing one hand at the base of the uterus, one on the fundus
Explanation:
The recommended method for assessing the postpartum fundus involves placing one hand just above the symphysis pubis to support the base of the uterus, while the other hand palpates the fundus. This technique prevents uterine inversion and ensures accurate assessment of tone and position.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Placing one hand on the fundus, one on the perineum
Placing a hand on the perineum during fundal assessment is not standard practice and offers no benefit in stabilizing the uterus.
B. Palpating the fundus with only fingertip pressure
Using only fingertip pressure may be too light to accurately assess fundal tone and position. Moderate pressure is needed for a proper assessment.
D. Resting both hands on the fundus
This does not provide stabilization and can increase the risk of pushing the uterus downward, potentially leading to uterine prolapse or inversion.
Which assessment on the third postpartum day would indicate to the nurse that a client is experiencing uterine subinvolution
-
The fundus is palpated 3 finger-breadths below the umbilicus after voiding
-
Uterine cramping is mild and resolved by NSAIDs
-
The fundus is palpated 2 finger-breadths above the pubic symphysis after voiding
-
The fundus is palpated at the umbilicus after voiding
Explanation
Correct Answer D. The fundus is palpated at the umbilicus after voiding
Explanation:
By the third postpartum day, the fundus should have descended to about 2–3 finger-breadths (approximately 2–3 cm) below the umbilicus. If it remains at the level of the umbilicus, this suggests uterine subinvolution, or a delay in the uterus returning to its pre-pregnancy size and position.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. The fundus is palpated 3 finger-breadths below the umbilicus after voiding
This is normal uterine involution for day 3 postpartum, indicating proper healing and descent of the uterus.
B. Uterine cramping is mild and resolved by NSAIDs
This is an expected postpartum symptom known as "afterpains." It does not indicate subinvolution.
C. The fundus is palpated 2 finger-breadths above the pubic symphysis after voiding
This would be appropriate or even slightly lower than expected by day 3, showing continued descent, not delayed involution.
The nurse is caring for a child admitted with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following lab findings are characteristic of this syndrome
-
Increased intracranial pressure
-
Hypoalbuminemia
-
Proteinuria
-
Glucosuria
-
Hyperlipidemia
-
Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation
Correct Answers:
B. Hypoalbuminemia
C. Proteinuria
E. Hyperlipidemia
Explanation of Correct Answers:
B. Hypoalbuminemia
In nephrotic syndrome, large amounts of albumin are lost through the urine, leading to low albumin levels in the blood. This contributes to edema.
C. Proteinuria
Massive protein loss in urine is a hallmark sign of nephrotic syndrome. Urine dipstick tests will show high levels of protein.
E. Hyperlipidemia
The liver increases lipid production in response to low protein levels in the blood, resulting in elevated cholesterol and triglycerides.
Explanation of Incorrect Answers:
A. Increased intracranial pressure
This is not associated with nephrotic syndrome. It is more related to neurological conditions or head trauma.
D. Glucosuria
Glucose in the urine is a sign of diabetes mellitus, not nephrotic syndrome. The kidneys do not lose glucose in nephrotic syndrome.
F. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Although ESR can be elevated in inflammatory or infectious processes, it is not a defining or characteristic finding in nephrotic syndrome.
Which is the most common characteristic associated with Nephrotic syndrome
-
Increasing weight loss
-
Increased urinary output
-
Generalized edema
-
Hypertension
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Generalized edema
Explanation:
Generalized edema is the hallmark feature of nephrotic syndrome and is usually the most noticeable clinical sign. It results from massive protein loss in the urine (proteinuria), which reduces oncotic pressure in the blood, causing fluid to shift into interstitial spaces. This leads to swelling in the face, abdomen, and extremities.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Increasing weight loss
Children with nephrotic syndrome usually experience weight gain due to fluid retention, not weight loss. Weight loss is not a primary symptom.
B. Increased urinary output
Nephrotic syndrome typically presents with decreased urinary output due to fluid retention and kidney dysfunction. Polyuria is not a common feature.
D. Hypertension
Although high blood pressure can occur in kidney conditions, it is not the most common or defining feature of nephrotic syndrome. Edema is more prominent in early presentation.
A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal birth 2 hours ago. They are currently receiving IV Oxytocin, 20 Units in 1000 ml Lactated Ringers solution infusing at 125 ml/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective
-
There is a large amount of bright red lochia with large clots
-
Fundus is firm to palpation at the umbilicus
-
Fundus is boggy to palpation at the umbilicus
-
Lochia is absent
Explanation
Correct Answer B. Fundus is firm to palpation at the umbilicus
Explanation:
Oxytocin promotes uterine contractions to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. A firm uterine fundus at the umbilicus level indicates that the uterus is contracting effectively and minimizing blood loss, showing the medication is working as intended.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. There is a large amount of bright red lochia with large clots
This suggests excessive bleeding and possible uterine atony, which indicates that the oxytocin is not effective.
C. Fundus is boggy to palpation at the umbilicus
A boggy uterus is soft and indicates poor contraction, increasing the risk for hemorrhage. This is a sign of oxytocin being ineffective.
D. Lochia is absent
Complete absence of lochia may indicate retained products of conception or uterine blockage, which is not a typical or desired outcome after birth. Some lochia is expected postpartum.
During discharge education of a patient diagnosed with pediculosis capitis, the nurse instructs the parents on what treatment
-
Throw away all stuffed animals
-
Change bed linen every 12 hours
-
Seal all non-washable items in airtight bags
-
Soak all hair items in alcohol
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Seal all non-washable items in airtight bags
Explanation:
For pediculosis capitis (head lice), non-washable items such as stuffed animals or pillows should be sealed in airtight plastic bags for 2 weeks to kill lice and nits through suffocation, as lice cannot survive long without a host. This method is effective and avoids unnecessary disposal of items.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
A. Throw away all stuffed animals
This is unnecessary. Items can be safely stored in sealed bags rather than discarded, which is more practical and cost-effective.
B. Change bed linen every 12 hours
While laundering is essential, changing linens every 12 hours is excessive. Once daily washing of bedding and clothing in hot water is sufficient.
D. Soak all hair items in alcohol
Hair accessories should be soaked in hot water (at least 130°F or 54°C) for 5–10 minutes, not alcohol. Alcohol is not a recommended or effective disinfectant for lice.
To prevent thromboembolism following a cesarean birth, which of the following would be the most important intervention to implement
-
Encourage the client to ambulate
-
Instruct the client to press inward on their abdomen periodically
-
Urge the client to cough and take deep breaths
-
Urge the client not to dislodge the IV fluid line
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Encourage the client to ambulate
Explanation:
Early ambulation is the most effective intervention to prevent thromboembolism after cesarean birth. Movement promotes circulation and venous return, which helps prevent the formation of blood clots in the legs. It’s especially important because cesarean delivery increases the risk of thromboembolic events due to surgery and postpartum immobility.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
B. Instruct the client to press inward on their abdomen periodically
This may be done to support the incision when moving or coughing, but it does not prevent blood clots and is not a key thromboembolism intervention.
C. Urge the client to cough and take deep breaths
This helps prevent respiratory complications, like atelectasis or pneumonia, not thromboembolism.
D. Urge the client not to dislodge the IV fluid line
While important for maintaining therapy, this has no effect on preventing blood clots or promoting circulation.
What information would the nurse document regarding a patient's reported allergies
-
Family history of allergies
-
Type of allergic reaction
-
Medication names
-
Epi Pen use for allergic reactions
-
Date of allergic reaction
Explanation
Correct Answers:
B. Type of allergic reaction
C. Medication names
D. Epi Pen use for allergic reactions
Explanation of Correct Answers:
B. Type of allergic reaction
It is essential to document what kind of reaction the patient experiences (e.g., rash, anaphylaxis, nausea). This helps differentiate true allergies from side effects.
C. Medication names
The nurse must document the specific medications or substances the patient is allergic to in order to prevent future exposure.
D. Epi Pen use for allergic reactions
If a patient has used or carries an Epi Pen, this suggests a history of severe allergic reactions (e.g., anaphylaxis), which is critical information for care planning.
Explanation of Incorrect Answers:
A. Family history of allergies
While useful, family history is not directly relevant when documenting the patient’s personal allergies. The focus should be on the patient's own reactions.
E. Date of allergic reaction
The exact date is not always known or necessary. The type and severity of the reaction are more clinically significant for documentation and safety.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .