Medical Surgical Exam 4 (NSG 123)
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Free Medical Surgical Exam 4 (NSG 123) Questions
A nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for nuclear imaging for suspected cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse give
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the presence of a liver enzyme will be identified
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you will be given an injection of a radioactive substance
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an endoscope will be inserted through mouth
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the tumor will be aspirated
Explanation
The correct answer is B: you will be given an injection of a radioactive substance
Explanation for the correct answer:
B. you will be given an injection of a radioactive substance
Nuclear imaging involves the use of radioactive substances (called radiopharmaceuticals) to produce images of the inside of the body. The patient typically receives an injection of a radioactive substance, which will be absorbed by certain tissues in the body. This helps the imaging equipment detect areas of concern, such as tumors or abnormal growths, which can help in diagnosing cancer or other conditions. This is the most accurate statement about nuclear imaging.
Why the other options are wrong:
A. the presence of a liver enzyme will be identified
This is incorrect. While liver enzyme levels may be assessed using blood tests, nuclear imaging is not used to identify liver enzymes. Nuclear imaging focuses on creating images to assess how organs and tissues are functioning, rather than identifying specific enzymes.
C. an endoscope will be inserted through the mouth
This is incorrect. An endoscope is used for procedures like endoscopy, which involves inserting a flexible tube with a camera through a body cavity, such as the mouth, to view internal structures. This is a different diagnostic procedure and not part of nuclear imaging.
D. the tumor will be aspirated
This is incorrect. Aspiration refers to the removal of tissue or fluid for examination, usually through a needle (e.g., fine needle aspiration or biopsy). Nuclear imaging does not involve aspiration of tissue; it involves the use of radioactive substances to visualize areas inside the body.
Summary:
For nuclear imaging, the correct information to provide is that the patient will receive an injection of a radioactive substance (B), which is used to help create detailed images of internal structures and identify areas of concern like cancer. Other options involve different diagnostic procedures that are not part of nuclear imaging.
The nurse is reviewing the medication list with a client with hypothyroidism who is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) . The nurse should notify the health care provider if the client reported taking which of the following medications
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magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)
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amitriptyline (Elavil)
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acetaminophen (Tylenol)
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gabapentin (Neurotin)
Explanation
The correct answer is A: magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia).
Explanation for the correct answer:
Magnesium hydroxide, commonly found in antacids like Milk of Magnesia, can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine (Synthroid). Magnesium can bind to levothyroxine in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the effectiveness of the thyroid medication. This interaction can lead to suboptimal thyroid hormone levels and poor management of hypothyroidism. Therefore, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client is taking magnesium hydroxide.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B: amitriptyline (Elavil):
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and there is no significant interaction between amitriptyline and levothyroxine. Although amitriptyline can have effects on mood and sleep, it does not directly impact the absorption or effectiveness of levothyroxine.
C: acetaminophen (Tylenol):
Acetaminophen does not interact with levothyroxine. It is a common analgesic and antipyretic, and there is no concern about how it affects thyroid hormone therapy.
D: gabapentin (Neurontin):
Gabapentin is a medication used to treat neuropathic pain and seizures. There are no significant interactions between gabapentin and levothyroxine that would require notifying the healthcare provider.
Summary:
Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) is the medication that should raise concern in a client taking levothyroxine due to its potential to interfere with the absorption of the thyroid medication. The other medications listed—amitriptyline, acetaminophen, and gabapentin—do not significantly affect the action of levothyroxine.
The nurse is discussing oral glyburide with the client diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which info should the nurse discuss with the client
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instruct client to take oral hypoglycemic meds with food
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explain that hypoglycemia will not occur with oral meds
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tell the client to notify HCP if Headache, nervousness, or sweating occurs
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recommend the client check ketones in the urine every morning
Explanation
The correct answer is A: instruct client to take oral hypoglycemic meds with food
Explanation for the correct answer:
Glyburide, an oral sulfonylurea, is often taken with food to minimize gastric upset. Taking it with food can also help prevent the client from experiencing hypoglycemia if they have not eaten enough. While glyburide works by stimulating the pancreas to release more insulin, which can lower blood sugar, taking it with food can reduce the risk of hypoglycemia. This makes option A the best choice for teaching the client how to take this medication safely.
Why the other options are wrong:
B. Explain that hypoglycemia will not occur with oral meds
This is incorrect. Hypoglycemia can occur with oral hypoglycemic medications, especially sulfonylureas like glyburide, if the client does not eat enough, exercises too much, or takes too much medication. Therefore, this statement would be misleading.
C. Tell the client to notify HCP if HA, nervousness, or sweating occurs
While hypoglycemia symptoms (headache, nervousness, sweating) are important for the client to recognize and report, option A (taking the medication with food) is the more immediate and relevant intervention to prevent hypoglycemia. The client needs to be taught about preventative measures, like taking the medication with food, rather than focusing solely on symptom management after hypoglycemia occurs.
D. Recommend the client check ketones in the urine every morning
This is not necessary for a client using glyburide for type 2 diabetes. Ketone testing is typically only required for clients with type 1 diabetes or those with uncontrolled diabetes. It is not a standard recommendation for clients using oral hypoglycemic medications.
Summary:
The best advice for a client taking glyburide is to take it with food (A) to prevent gastric upset and reduce the risk of hypoglycemia. The other options either misstate the nature of the drug's action or focus on interventions that are less immediately relevant for managing this medication.
The nurse is preparing a conference about hypothyroidism for a group of clients. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the conference
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This disorder is more common in men than women.
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Low thyroid hormone levels may increase the heart rate.
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Hypothyroidism can cause extreme fatigue.
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People often lose weight unexpectedly when they have this condition.
Explanation
The correct answer is C: Hypothyroidism can cause extreme fatigue.
Explanation for the correct answer:
Hypothyroidism can cause extreme fatigue.: One of the hallmark symptoms of hypothyroidism is extreme fatigue or a feeling of being tired all the time. This occurs because the thyroid hormone is essential for regulating metabolism and energy production. When there is an insufficient amount of thyroid hormone, the body's metabolism slows down, leading to decreased energy levels and feelings of fatigue.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A.This disorder is more common in men than women: This statement is incorrect. Hypothyroidism is actually more common in women than in men. It is estimated that women are more likely to develop hypothyroidism, especially as they age. In contrast, men have a lower incidence of the condition.
B. Low thyroid hormone levels may increase the heart rate.: This statement is incorrect. Low thyroid hormone levels (hypothyroidism) actually lead to a slower heart rate (bradycardia), not an increased heart rate. When the thyroid hormone levels are low, the metabolic processes slow down, including the heart rate.
D. People often lose weight unexpectedly when they have this condition.: This statement is incorrect. People with hypothyroidism typically experience weight gain, not weight loss. Because the metabolism is slowed down, the body may have difficulty burning calories efficiently, leading to weight gain. Unexpected weight loss is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, where there is an overproduction of thyroid hormone.
Summary:
Hypothyroidism can cause extreme fatigue as the thyroid hormone is critical in regulating metabolism and energy production. Contrary to the other statements, hypothyroidism is more common in women than in men, leads to a slower heart rate, and typically results in weight gain rather than weight loss. Therefore, C. Hypothyroidism can cause extreme fatigue is the correct answer.
Patients receiving chemo are at risk for thrombocytopenia related to chemo or disease processes. Which actions are needed for pts who must be placed on bleeding precautions
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provide mouthwash w/ alc for oral rinsing
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use paper tape on fragile skin
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provide soft toothbrush or oral sponge
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gently insert rectal suppositories
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avoid aspirin or aspirin-containing products
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avoid over inflation of BP cuffs
Explanation
The correct answers are:
C. provide soft toothbrush or oral sponge
E. avoid aspirin or aspirin-containing products
F. avoid over inflation of BP cuffs
Explanation for the correct answers:
C. provide soft toothbrush or oral sponge
For patients with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), it is important to prevent bleeding, especially from the gums. A soft toothbrush or oral sponge helps to reduce the risk of gum trauma and bleeding while maintaining oral hygiene. Hard-bristled brushes can cause abrasions and increase the risk of bleeding.
E. avoid aspirin or aspirin-containing products
Aspirin can interfere with platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, patients with thrombocytopenia or those on bleeding precautions should avoid aspirin and aspirin-containing products. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like aspirin can exacerbate the bleeding risk and should be avoided.
F. avoid over inflation of BP cuffs
Over-inflating the BP cuff can cause bruising and damage to the skin and underlying tissues, especially in patients with thrombocytopenia. To avoid this risk, BP cuffs should be inflated to an appropriate level, and care should be taken to avoid prolonged or excessive pressure.
Why the other options are wrong:
A. provide mouthwash w/ alcohol for oral rinsing
Alcohol-based mouthwash can be irritating and drying to the mucosal membranes, potentially leading to sores or bleeding in the mouth. It should be avoided for patients with thrombocytopenia. Non-alcoholic mouthwashes are a better alternative for oral care.
B. use paper tape on fragile skin
Paper tape can be too abrasive for fragile skin and may increase the risk of skin tears and bruising in patients with thrombocytopenia. Gentle adhesive tapes, such as those designed for sensitive skin, are a safer choice to minimize skin damage.
D. gently insert rectal suppositories
Rectal suppositories should be avoided in patients with thrombocytopenia because they can cause rectal bleeding due to the fragile mucous membranes in the rectum. Alternative methods of medication administration should be used whenever possible.
Summary:
For patients on bleeding precautions, providing a soft toothbrush or oral sponge (C), avoiding aspirin or aspirin-containing products (E), and avoiding over-inflating BP cuffs (F) are the appropriate actions to minimize bleeding risks. The other options (A, B, D) either increase the risk of injury or are not suitable for thrombocytopenic patients.
The nurse is assessing a client newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse should expect which of the following
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Low serum thyroxine (T4) level
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Decreased serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
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Tachycardia or fine hand tremor
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Elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
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Elevated serum thyroxine (T4)
Explanation
The correct answer is:
B. Decreased serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
C. Tachycardia or fine hand tremor
E. Elevated serum thyroxine (T4)
Explanation for the correct answers:
B. Decreased serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
In hyperthyroidism, the elevated levels of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) lead to a decrease in the production of TSH by the pituitary gland. This is due to the negative feedback loop, where high levels of thyroid hormones suppress TSH secretion.
C. Tachycardia or fine hand tremor
Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and fine hand tremor are common clinical symptoms of hyperthyroidism. The elevated thyroid hormones increase the metabolic rate and stimulate the cardiovascular system, leading to a faster heart rate and tremors.
E. Elevated serum thyroxine (T4)
In hyperthyroidism, the levels of thyroxine (T4) are elevated as a result of increased thyroid hormone production by the thyroid gland.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Low serum thyroxine (T4) level
In hyperthyroidism, the serum T4 levels are elevated, not low. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by excess thyroid hormone production.
D. Elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
TSH is typically low in hyperthyroidism due to the negative feedback mechanism in response to the high levels of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4).
Summary:
In a client with hyperthyroidism, the nurse should expect decreased TSH, elevated T4, and symptoms such as tachycardia or fine hand tremor due to the overproduction of thyroid hormones.
A client receives 8 units of regular insulin at 0730. When should the nurse should be most alert for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia
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"Between 0930 and 1130."
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"Between 1130 and 1330."
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"Between 0930 and 1030.
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"Between 1130 and 1930."
Explanation
The correct answer is C: Between 0930 and 1030.
Explanation for the correct answer:
Regular insulin has a peak action time of approximately 2 to 4 hours after administration. Since the client receives 8 units of regular insulin at 0730, the nurse should be most alert for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia 2 to 4 hours after administration, which would be between 0930 and 1030.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A: Between 0930 and 1130.
Although this time frame includes the peak action time of insulin, hypoglycemia is more likely to occur closer to the 2-hour peak, so this range is too wide.
B: Between 1130 and 1330.
This would be after the typical peak time for regular insulin, making hypoglycemia less likely during this period.
D: Between 1130 and 1930.
This range is much later than the peak time for regular insulin, so hypoglycemia is unlikely to occur during this time.
Summary:
The nurse should be most alert for signs of hypoglycemia between 0930 and 1030, which corresponds to the 2 to 4-hour window after administering regular insulin.
What info should the nurse teach workers at a daycare center about RSV
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RSV is transmitted through particles in air
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RSV can live on skin or paper for up to a few seconds after contact
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RSV can survive on nonporous surfaces for about 60 min
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frequent hand washing can decrease the spread of the virus
Explanation
The correct answer is D: frequent hand washing can decrease the spread of the virus
Explanation for the correct answer:
D. frequent hand washing can decrease the spread of the virus
The most effective way to prevent the spread of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), particularly in daycare settings, is frequent hand washing. RSV is highly contagious and is spread through contact with respiratory secretions, such as from coughing or sneezing. By practicing good hand hygiene, especially washing hands thoroughly after contact with respiratory droplets or surfaces contaminated by the virus, workers can significantly reduce the transmission of RSV.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. RSV is transmitted through particles in air
While RSV can be transmitted by respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing, it is primarily spread by direct contact with infected surfaces or hands, not through airborne particles like some other viruses (e.g., tuberculosis). This answer is misleading because RSV transmission occurs primarily through direct contact, not just air particles.
B. RSV can live on skin or paper for up to a few seconds after contact
This statement is not accurate. RSV can survive on nonporous surfaces (like plastic or metal) for several hours but does not survive long on porous materials like skin or paper. Proper hand hygiene is essential because RSV can survive long enough on surfaces that are frequently touched, but it is not correct to say it survives only for seconds on skin or paper.
C. RSV can survive on nonporous surfaces for about 60 min
While RSV can survive on nonporous surfaces, it can actually last longer than 60 minutes—up to several hours. This makes it important for daycare workers to regularly disinfect surfaces that are frequently touched.
Summary:
The key preventive measure for RSV transmission is frequent hand washing. It’s important to emphasize this practice in daycare settings to reduce the spread of RSV, as the virus is primarily spread by direct contact with respiratory droplets or contaminated surfaces.
The home health nurse is visiting a client with diabetes mellitus, type 2 who reports nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days and not taking prescribed insulin because of the inability to "keep food down." Which of the following responses would be most appropriate for the nurse to make
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"Continue taking your usual insulin dose even if you have nausea and vomiting."
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"Check your blood sugar level twice each day even if you are not eating."
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"Avoid drinking soda or fruit juices because it will increase your blood sugar level."
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"Limit your daily fluid intake as it may aggravate your nausea and vomiting."
Explanation
The correct answer is A: Continue taking your usual insulin dose even if you have nausea and vomiting.
Explanation for the correct answer:
A. Continue taking your usual insulin dose even if you have nausea and vomiting.
Even if the client is unable to keep food down, it's crucial to continue taking insulin as prescribed. Skipping insulin during periods of illness, especially when blood glucose levels can rise due to stress or illness, can lead to hyperglycemia or even diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a life-threatening condition. The client should be advised to continue their insulin regimen to prevent complications.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Check your blood sugar level twice each day even if you are not eating.
This option is not sufficient because blood glucose levels should be monitored more frequently during illness, especially in someone with diabetes. Checking blood sugar more often (e.g., every 2-4 hours) is important to detect any rapid changes, especially if the client is unable to eat or drink normally.
C. Avoid drinking soda or fruit juices because it will increase your blood sugar level.
While it's true that soda and fruit juices can increase blood sugar, it’s also important to maintain hydration, especially during illness. The client may need to drink fluids that contain some sugar to avoid dehydration and provide some energy. Clear liquids that include sugar (like diluted fruit juice or oral rehydration solutions) may help maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
D. Limit your daily fluid intake as it may aggravate your nausea and vomiting.
This option is not appropriate because limiting fluid intake can increase the risk of dehydration, especially in a client who is vomiting. It’s important to encourage the client to drink small, frequent sips of fluids, including electrolyte solutions or water, to stay hydrated and prevent further complications.
Summary:
For a client with type 2 diabetes experiencing nausea and vomiting, it is crucial to continue taking prescribed insulin to prevent serious complications such as hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. The client should be advised to monitor blood sugar more frequently, stay hydrated, and continue insulin therapy even if they are unable to eat.
Which activity performed by the community health nurse best reflects primary prevention of cancer
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assisting women obtain free mammograms
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teaching a class on cancer prevention
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encourage long-term smokers to get a chest xray
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encouraging sexually active women to get annual pap smears
Explanation
The correct answer is B: teaching a class on cancer prevention
Explanation for the correct answer:
B. teaching a class on cancer prevention
Primary prevention refers to efforts to prevent the occurrence of disease before it happens. Teaching a class on cancer prevention involves providing education on lifestyle changes, such as avoiding tobacco, limiting alcohol, using sunscreen, and eating a healthy diet. This proactive approach aims to reduce the risk factors for cancer and prevent it from developing in the first place.
Why the other options are wrong:
A. assisting women obtain free mammograms
This activity falls under secondary prevention, not primary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and screening for disease in asymptomatic individuals, with the goal of detecting cancer at an early stage when it can be treated more effectively. Mammograms are a screening tool for early detection, not a method to prevent cancer.
C. encourage long-term smokers to get a chest x-ray
Encouraging chest x-rays for long-term smokers is also part of secondary prevention. It aims to detect lung cancer at an early stage through screening in those at high risk (e.g., long-term smokers). However, it does not prevent cancer; it only identifies potential cancer at an early stage for treatment.
D. encouraging sexually active women to get annual pap smears
Pap smears are a secondary prevention strategy used to detect cervical cancer at an early stage. This helps with early treatment and prevention of cancer progression, but it does not prevent the cancer from occurring in the first place.
Summary:
Teaching a class on cancer prevention (B) is the best example of primary prevention, as it involves educating individuals to reduce cancer risk before the disease occurs. Other options (A, C, D) focus on secondary prevention, which involves early detection through screening rather than prevention.
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